We have asked and received permission to comment upon a debate on the subject "Is the Great Tribulation Past or Future?" held on the Theology Online Forum between Tekton author Dee Dee Warren and a certain Jerry Shugart. Permission was granted with the proviso that we provide a link to the debate, which is presently here. Please note that Dee Dee no longer participates at TOL and may now be found at TheologyWeb. Interested parties may wish to check out the Eschatology Wrestlefest.
Since my agreement is with Dee Dee as a whole, our comments on her side will of course be limited, and we will have much more to say to Jerry, who, though perhaps earnest, in my estimation is of a regrettable class of believer who is committed to the type of thinking that causes those of weaker faith to stumble.
Dee Dee won the "coin toss" and was permitted to lay out a position first:
When I make
the statement that the Great Tribulation spoken of in
Matthew 24 is over, futurists are inevitably drawn like
a magnet to Daniel 9. Now this is understandable since
Jesus mentions the phrase "the abomination of desolation"
which finds its place in either Daniel 9:27 or
Daniel 12:11 or both. However, the futurist then
inserts a handy-dandy gap in between the 69th and the 70th
week of Daniel's prophecy (which is illegitimate and has blasphemous implications for other reasons)
and through somewhat circular reasoning uses this to "prove"
that the Great Tribulation is future.
This makes
absolutely no sense and does great violence to the
text. When Daniel receives this prophecy, Jerusalem and the
Temple are in ruins. He is told that the city will be rebuilt
(and by implication the Temple will be rebuilt also). Within
the same prophecy he is told that Jerusalem and the
Temple will be destroyed. Gabriel also exhorts Daniel in
verse 25 to know and understand this vision.
Is there any chance in a billion years that
Daniel knew and understood that it was not the city and
Temple that he was just told would be rebuilt that are also
spoken about as being destroyed?? Would he have any
idea without any textual clue whatsoever that the
destruction of THAT city and Temple would be skipped over
and omitted… the city and Temple would be rebuilt again
(without any mention of this event in the text), and it is
THAT future city and Temple that are referenced as
being destroyed?? This is simply unbelievable.
Only one city and Temple are in view in this
prophecy.
However, further to the demise of futurism,
Jesus makes it clear what Temple and
city are in view beyond any shadow of a doubt in the Olivet
Discourse, which futurists believe is speaking of the
70th week of Daniel (preterists don't believe that it has
anything to do with the 70th week of Daniel, but does have to
do with events spoken of in Daniel 9, such as the
abomination of desolation, which happen "outside" of the 70
weeks). In the Olivet Discourse the disciples ask Jesus
certain questions, and these were not asked in a vacuum. The
questions were prompted as follows (my commentary is in black
- God's Word is in red and italics):
First using
Mark as a source: Then as He went
out of the temple (the Temple that existed back
then), one of His disciples said to
Him, "Teacher, see what manner of stones and what buildings
are here!" ( they are asking about the Temple that
existed back then) And Jesus
answered and said to him, "Do you see these great buildings?
Not one stone shall be left upon another, that shall not be
thrown down." (referring to the Temple that existed
back then!)
Now as He sat on
the Mount of Olives opposite the temple,
(that existed back then) Peter, James, John, and Andrew asked Him
privately, "Tell us, when will these things be?…."
(it matters not that they asked Him more questions,
obviously one of the things that they wanted to know was when
the Temple that existed back then would be
destroyed)
Next using Luke as a source: Then, as some spoke of the temple, (the
Temple that existed back then) how
it was adorned with beautiful stones and donations, He said,
"These things which you see- (the Temple that was
before their very eyes right then) the days will come in which not one stone shall
be left upon another that shall not be thrown down." So they
asked Him, saying, "Teacher, but when will these things be?
(again, part of "these things" MUST include
the destruction that He just prophesied that prompted their
questions to begin with)
Lastly using Matthew as
a source: Then Jesus went out and departed
from the temple, and His disciples came up to show Him the
buildings of the temple. (the Temple that existed
back then) And Jesus said to them,
"Do you not see all these things? (the Temple that
existed back then) Assuredly, I say
to you, not one stone shall be left here ( notice
the word "here" it is referring to those actual stones,
the ones that existed then) upon
another, that shall not be thrown down."
All
these of the Synoptics of the Olivet Discourse contain the
very solemn declaration by Jesus, "Assuredly, I say to you, this generation
will by no means pass away till all these things take
place." (Matthew 24:34, Luke 21:32, Mark
13:31)
Now we know when the city and Temple were
destroyed. It was in 70AD. If that is "one" of "all these
things," then ALL of the rest of that passage, at least
up to Matthew 24:33, Luke 21:31, and Mark 13:31
happened in the first century as well. It is inescapable.
The destruction the then existing Temple is a completely
unique, datable, and nonrepeatable event. If the prophecy
was not primarily fulfilled in the first century, it can never
be. This also ties in with the "abomination of
desolation" and Daniel 9. Jesus in identifying what
Temple He was referring to totally destroys any notion that
the Temple being referred to in Daniel 9 is any
other Temple than the one that existed when Christ gave His
Discourse. There is NO way around this.
THIS IS WHERE I LAY DOWN THE GAUNTLET. It is an
intractable problem for futurism.
We offer no comment at present. Next Jerry laid down his essential case:
When I
started studying the prophetic time when the "man of sin"
would sit "in the Temple of God,showing himself that he is
God",I kept asking myself the same question--"How would it be
possible for this anti-christ to deceive the world,especially
considering the fact that there are many prophecies that say
that an imposter would sit in the Temple of God?"
But
after studying the teaching of the church at Rome and of the
preterists,I have found the answer--all these events have
already come to pass!At least that is what they
teach.
No need to worry about the "anti-christ" because
he has already come and gone.No need to worry about
Satan,because he is at this time bound and has been cast into
the bottomless pit.
How convenient for
Satan!
But those of us who are guided by the Scriptures
know that all this is not true.We know that the "great
tribulation" has not yet come to pass.
Dee Dee is
unable to distinguish between two different events that
involve Jerusalem.However,Scripture does distinguish between
an assault on Jerusalem when there will be no relief for the
people,and another event when the Lord Jesus will deliver His
people.
The Apostles asked the Lord in regard to the
destruction of the Temple then standing,"Master,but when shall
these things be?"(Lk.21:7).
In answer,the Lord
described an assault on Jerusalem where there will be no
relief or deliverence:
"And when ye shall see Jerusalem
compassed with armies,then know that the desolation is
near...and they shall fall by the edge of the sword,and shall
be led away captive into all nations"(Lk.21:20,24).
And
this is exactly what happened in A.D 70.
The apostles
also asked the Lord,"And what shall be the sign of Thy
coming,and of the end of the age?"
The Lord´s answer to
this question involves another assault on Jerusalem,and this
assault is tied to the prophecies contained in the book of
Daniel (Mt.24:15).
Here we can see that these events
concern a "king" who "shall exalt himself,and magnify himself
above every god...and he shall plant the tabernacles of his
palace between the seas in the glorious holy mountain;yet he
shall come to his end,and none shall help
him"(Dan.11:36,45).
The verses that immediately follow
reveal that at this assault on Jerusalem the people of
Daniel,the children of Israel,will "be delivered":
"And
at that time shall Michael stand up,the great prince that
standeth for the children of thy people,and there shall be a
time of trouble,SUCH AS NEVER WAS SINCE THERE WAS A NATION
EVEN TO THAT SAME TIME; and at that time THY PEOPLE SHALL BE
DELIVERED,every one that shall be found written in the
book"(Dan.12:1).
So here we see a completely different
assault on Jerusalem,and this attack is described in the same
terms as the "great tribulation"--"such as never was since
there was a nation even to the same time"(compare with
Mt.24:21)--but in this instance the people of God will be
delivered.
And since we know that the time has not yet
arrived when the people of God in Jerusalem will be
delivered,we also know that the event described as the "great
tribulation" has not come to pass either.
Next,I will
deal with Dee Dee´s words in regard to the 70 Weeks and the
Lord´s words that "This generation shall not pass till all
these things be fulfilled"(Mt.24:34).
And perhaps Dee
Dee will tell us when the following events
happened:
"Immediately after the tribulation of those
days shall the sun be darkened,and the moon shall not give its
light,and the stars shall fall from heaven,and the powers of
the heavens shall be shaken"(Mt.24:29).
It frankly did not take me long to decide that Jerry wasn't of, shall we say, the caliber I would be able to respect. The immediate refuge to blaming Satan (!) for preterist views sounds far better in the mouth of a Benny Hinn blaming demons for stealing his necktie or misplacing his car keys. Is this the kind of discourse we need? "If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?" Substitute "about Satan making plots" for "with tongues" and you will get the idea. Jerry lost all credibility in my eyes in Round 1 with this mulluguthering, with the immediate refuge to casting blame on Satan and appealing to those who are (begging the question!) "guided by the Scriptures." I wouldn't be able to finish a list of people who make the same claim, ranging from Wayne Harrington's purple-cloud exegesis to Dennis McKinsey's "read the Bible like a newspaper."
For the remainder there is little to be said. Jerry falls for the usual "pedantic literalism" in reading Matt. 24:21, unaware (as we have shown here, where we also explain 24:29 beyond the pedantic literalist view) that such hyperbolic language was par for the course for ancient Semites. And were the people delivered? Yes, they were. Christians escaped the wrath on Jerusalem. All who did so were Jews by birth -- these were the "people" of Daniel's who were found "written in the book". Jerry shows himself to be seriously lacking in historical background.
Now to Dee Dee, Round 2:
I find it
ironic that some people are so emotionally attached to
the "antichrist" and Cobra helicopters and microchip implants
that the thought that such things are not going to happen is
just devastating. Personally, I find the idea that the
G.T. is past a good thing, but hey, who am I to judge? I am,
after all, in league not only with satan but also the
Pope if you believe Jerry's spin-doctoring. Why just slam preterists when you can get a free jab
in at the Catholics too??
Jerry pretends to have
answered the intractable conundrum I
posited in my opening post. I am going to stick to that point
like a piranha on a corndog because IF it is true, then nothing else can be
said. It is a mouth-shutter. Here it is again in
simple form: Jesus beginning in Mt 24:1; Mk 13:1; Lk
21:5 prophesied many things, including the
destruction of the Temple that then existed. The
destruction of the Temple that then existed is, by
definition, an absolutely unique, datable, and
nonrepeatable event. Each of these passages is
capped off with the very solemn declaration, "Most assuredly I say to you this generation will by
no means pass away till all these things take
place."(Mt 24:34; Mk 13:30; Lk 21:32). Since the
destruction of the Temple that then existed is one
of ALL these things, AND is a nonrepeatable event,
that unequivocally thrusts the whole
passage into the first century. I am sorry my futurist
friend but there is no way around it. You can ignore the
elephant in the room but that won't stop him from squashing
ya. You must deal with this point,
and "yeah buts" don't cut the mustard.
Now let me show you
where Jerry becomes quite painfully disjunctive and
anticontextual. He admits that Lk 21:20-24 is about
70AD. Well my friends in so doing, he has sold the
farm. If that "part" was fulfilled in the first century,
since Jesus says in Lk 21:32 that ALL these
things will happen within "this generation," then ALL
of the rest of the Lukan passage from Lk
21:5-21:31HAS to have happened as well including the
"coming" in verse 27, or Jesus was a false prophet.
And, Lk 21:20-24 is NOT speaking about a different
event from Mt 24:15-18. Take a look
for yourself and see.
Jerry also engages in a
classic case of begging the question in his claims that
the Great Tribulation is a time when "Israel" is delivered so
this cannot be the event in spoken of in Lk 21:20-24
which are described as the days of vengeance. No dice.Mark 13, Matthew 24, and Luke 21 are about
the same events… there is no around that, no way to cut
out just that one portion of Luke (not even
the handy dandy magic dispie gap can help here). And
Matthew certainly does not forecast any deliverance for
those being judged either… it is just as much a
prophesy of divine vengeance as in Luke (see Mt
23:31:39). All this being said, the elect (true Israel)
WERE delivered. History records that not one
Christian died in the siege of Jerusalem. Jerry will
object that we are not true Israel. Really?? Paul says
otherwise in Romans 11:17 and Phil 3:3 to name a few.
Even in the OT, "Israel" transcended ethnic boundaries to mean
the community of faith of belief in YHWH.
And watch
Jerry gore himself even further on his own horn -
ouch!!
quote:
And since we know that the time has not yet arrived
when the people of God in Jerusalem will be delivered, we
also know that the event described as the "great
tribulation" has not come to pass either.
Nonsense… since we know when the
unique and nonrepeatable event of the destruction of
the Temple that then existed happened, then we know
that ALL those things (of which the Temple was "one")
prophesied to happen within "this generation" did in fact come
to pass. Jesus did not say all of these things except
ONE will happen within "this generation," He said
ALL of them would. Jerry has ignored this intractable
dilemma, of course because he has no choice.
Jerry
also tried to distract the diligent reader's attention from
his obfuscation on my fatal challenge with:
quote:
And perhaps Dee Dee will tell us when the following
events happened:"Immediately after the tribulation of those
days shall the sun be darkened,and the moon shall not give
its light,and the stars shall fall from heaven,and the
powers of the heavens shall be
shaken"(Mt.24:29).
Sure I will, when Jerry tells me when
YHWH saddled up ole Gabriel and rode into Dodge on a cloud to
save David (2 Samuel 22:11-13) and then later did Part
Two by popping a wheelie on a cumulous into Egypt and started
kicking over idols (Is 19:1). Oh I see. Aren't quite so
literal there are we??
quote:
Next,I will deal with Dee Dee´s words in regard to
the 70 Weeks……..
You sure you want to go there? Remember
the last time you asked me what my Greek qualifications were
to even be discussing Daniel.
Dee Dee has properly pressed home the key points of a) the so-called time texts; b) the shaky attempt to distance Luke's version for Matthew and Mark's. Without this shimmy, dispensationalism/futurism has no future at all. Luke is clearly offering the same presentation, and there are no more grounds for separating it than for making two Sermons on the Mount. The point about the "true Israel" is also helpful.
Back to Jerry:
Dee Dee´s
complete argument is based on the idea that the word
"generation" can ONLY mean a "the whole multitude of men
living at the same time".
But according to Greek
experts,it can also mean "men of the same stock,a family"
("Thayer´s Greek English Lexicon").
We can see that the
Lord Himself used that same word another time earlier in the
same day,and by His use of the word we can see that it cannot
possibly mean "the whole multitude of men living at the same
time."
He said,"Verily I say unto you,All these things
shall come upon this generation"(Mt.23:36).
And the
Lord makes it plain as to whom He is referring,saying,"That
upon YOU may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth
from the blood of righteous Abel unto the BLOOD OF
ZECHARIAH,son of Barachiah,WHOM YE SLEW between the temple and
the altar"(Mt.23:35).
That group of men whom the Lord
was addressing DID NOT KILL ZECHARIAH.He died hundreds of
years earlier.So when the Lord says,"Whom YE slew",He means
the whole wicked race of Jews.Just two verses earlier He calls
them "ye generation of vipers"!
So we can see that the
Lord is saying that the blood of Zechariah will come upon this
generation,this race of vipers that have killed the prophets
of God since the beginning of Israel.
Next,in regard
to my points that Scripture reveals that God´s people will be
delivered when the Lord comes in His glory,Dee Dee writes that
"History records that not one Christian died in the seige of
Jerusalem." But Dee Dee fails to give any source for her
statement.Perhaps she will tell us which historian said such a
thing.
However,Dee Dee fails to realize that Scripture
reveals not only that the Lord will deliver His people when He
comes,it also also reveals that the Lord will DESTROY those
who come against His people:
"And it shall come to
pass,in that day,that I will seek to destroy all the nations
that come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).
According to
all the accounts that I have read on AD 70,there was no defeat
of the Roman armies.Perhaps Dee Dee can quote some unnamed
historian to say that the armies of Rome were defeated in
Jerusalem in AD 70.
Next,we see that "immediately after
the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened,and
the moon shall not give its light,and the stars shall fall
from heaven."
But Dee Dee says that the words of the
Lord cannot be taken in a literal sense at all.First of
all,since we see that ALL of the Lord´s previous words are not
"symbolic" in any sense,it seems rather strange strange that
He would all of a sudden start speaking in "symbolic"
way.Especially considering the fact that He was telling them
what to be LOOKING for in regard to His return.
And if
His words do not mean that there will be actual signs in the
heavens,His words must have another meaning.Perhaps Dee Dee
will tell us what His words mean.
For the present Jerry leaves behind some of the other points he brought forward, and to which Dee Dee replied, and narrows in his focus on the time texts that speak of "this generation." Dee Dee answered much of this in the next round, but for the present note:
On Christians not dying in Jerusalem -- this is recorded by the church historian Eusebius; see the reference Dee Dee gives below.
On Zech. 12:9 -- see here and what Dee Dee offers below.
Dee Dee, Round 3:
Well, well,
well, it is very interesting what Jerry has implicitly
conceded, and that is that IF "this
generation" is taken to mean a "generation" in the normal
ordinary sense of "contemporaries," then my position is undeniably correct. This is true even
if one tries to claim that "this generation" does not
necessarily mean the generation living when Jesus spoke, but
the generation that would see the signs He spoke of, because
the ONE UNREPEATABLE event (the destruction of the
Temple and city that then existed) has already
happened, thus absolutely thrusting the time frame of "this
generation" into the first century. Ouch.
Now before I completely dismantle (over the
next few posts) Jerry's assertion that "genea" in Matthew
24:34 should be more appropriately understood as "race,"
let me once again point out the absolutely painful
corner that Jerry has painted himself into. He has not and
of course CANNOT deny that the Temple that was
prophesied to be destroyed was the Temple THEN
standing. BUT…. Jesus ties that destruction (and the
destruction of the city which then existed) in with the
"abomination of desolation" in Daniel 9:26 and 12:11
making it irrefutable that the there is NO future
Temple prophesied to be rebuilt. Without this
future Temple, the whole futurist house of cards comes
tumbling down. There is then NO seven year
treaty made by the antichrist who then desecrates the Temple
and breaks the treaty halfway through. Jesus makes it crystal
clear that Temple and the city that were to be destroyed were
the ones that THEN existed. All Jerry has done with his
textual gerrymandering is to attempt to extend out the
timeframe for the fulfillment of the REST of those
things into the indefinite future rather than limiting it to a
single generation. Unfortunately for him, the text once again
silences him. Let's just look at a few shall we?
Jerry
admits that Luke 21:20-24 is about AD70 and tries
futilely to deny through starkly naked circular reasoning that
Matthew 24:15-21 is speaking about the same event.
However, capitalizing only on the part that Jerry has conceded
is about AD70, Luke 21:31 makes it clear that
ALL of these events (i.e. Luke 21:5-31 - which
also includes the destruction of the first century
Temple) are to take place within a relatively short time
span because Jesus said that once "you see ALL these
things happening, know that the Kingdom of God is
NEAR." Now Luke 21:20-24 (and the destruction of
the first century Temple) is ONE of all these things.
We moderns CAN NEVER see that happening and know that
anything is NEAR. That EVENT is nonrepeatable and long
past. Jerry can't even beg out for some kind of
"double-fulfillment" because not only is it NONREPEATABLE,
Luke describes it as the days of vengeance and wrath upon the
Jewish people, NOT deliverance (which is why Jerry HAS to
admit it is about AD70). So, the text makes it clear that ALL
of these things will happen in such a short proximity to each
other that it is possible to see ALL of them happening and
know that a great eschatological triumph is NEAR. Ouch. Futurism is gored on yet another time text so I
guess it ain't quite true that
quote:
Dee Dee´s complete argument is based on the idea that
the word "generation" can ONLY mean a "the whole multitude
of men living at the same time".
Now beginning on Jerry's Explaining Away
Option B for "this generation." He claims warrant for
interpreting "this generation" as "this race" in Matthew
23:36. I am sorry but that is sloppy exegesis and a
complete dismissal of OT background for Jesus' words. Jerry
claims that since the Pharisees and scribes did not personally
murder Zechariah then the phrase "this generation" means
something broader than just the first century audience. Wow, I
show hope Jerry put on a 'chute before he made that leap. How
do you get from implying that "you" may be broader than just
"them" to transferring that meaning to "this generation"? How
indeed. A careful reading of the text with the OT firmly in
mind shows just how wrongheaded Jerry's reasoning is.
Matthew 23 is the record of Jesus' calling down seven
woes upon the first century scribes and Pharisees. It is
undeniably talking about them (using the personal
pronoun "you" dozens of times) NOT unbelieving Jews of all
time. Beginning in verse 31 it gets really
personal with Jesus telling them that they are witnesses
against themselves that they are sons of their murderous
"fathers." Jesus then tells them to "Fill up, then, the
measure of your fathers' guilt." (verse 32)
Note that phrase very carefully. Jesus declares THEM guilty of
their father's crimes which includes the murder of all the
righteous blood upon the earth. Because he has declared them
guilty (and there is no doubt there that He is speaking of
THEM), Jesus then lays to their charge the actual murders. In
saying that "you murdered Zechariah" Jesus is restating what
he already said… that they have filled up the measure of their
father's guilt. Their father's guilt is theirs. Their father's
crimes are theirs. Jerry in his obfuscation has laid the guilt
of the ages upon unbelieving Jews of ALL TIME, instead
of the unique generation that Jesus said would "fill up" those
iniquities because the murder of Him would be the greatest of
all crimes. It was THEM that filled up on the measure of their
father's guilt, not my unbelieving Jewish next door neighbor
Murray Goldstein.
Jerry claims some heavy gun support
for his spindoctoring of "this generation" by insinuating that
the Greek scholar Thayer concurs. Jerry would have done better
to check what Thayer actually said then just barfing up
the Scofield Reference Bible. Thayer on page 112 of his lexicon defines "genea" as
"the whole multitude of men living at the same time"
and cites Matthew 24:34 as an example of such!! Ouch.
Arndt and Gingrich concur and also cite Matthew 24:34
in support and affirmatively disapprove of the notion of it
meaning "race" in that verse. The lexicons are overwhelmingly
on my side as evidenced by the fact that NO major Bible
version translates that verse as "race" in the text, and
believe me, that is not because they are eager to throw
preterists a bone. The heavy hitters of futurism have
abandoned this idea en masse (i.e. Ice, Lindsey, Smith) as
bankrupt. And check for yourself, here are ALL the other
places that "genea" is used in the Gospels, Matthew 1:17;
11:16; 12:39, 41, 42, 45; 16:4; 17:17; Mark 8:12, 38; 9:19;
13:30; Luke 1:48, 50; 7:31; 9:41; 11:29, 30, 31, 32, 50, 51;
16:8; 17:25; 21:32. In each and every time it means
generation in the ordinary sense of the word. You see, the
Greek language has a perfectly good word for "race," it is
"genos," which is the word Peter used in 1 Peter 2:9,
but that is NOT the word that Jesus used, though He certainly
could have if "race" is what He meant.
Consider the
utter inanity that Jerry's position puts in the mouth of
Christ. Jerry agrees that Jesus is prophesying concerning the
Jewish people. And then in a dramatic statement opening with
"Most assuredly I say to you," what does Jesus say??
Drum roll please…….. "The Jewish race will not pass away
until all these things happen to the Jewish race."
Huh?? That is nonsense and is a complete tautological
truism, a reductio ad absurdum.. Remember the disciples
asked Jesus when would these things be. Jerry has Jesus
completely ignoring their question and giving a prediction
that even Benny Hinn could get right. Wait a minute, I'm
feeling prophetic….. "Most assuredly I say to TOL, TOL will
remain online until it goes offline."
Now whenever it
gets too hot in the NT kitchen for Jerry he likes to trot out
selected portions of the OT. We can get to that, but he needs
to deal with what the NT actually says as the NT is the
authorative interpreter of the Old. He is simply asserting
"yeah but" statements. That don't impress me much. It seems
like Jerry doesn't want to answer my previous question of:
"When YHWH saddle up ole Gabriel and ride into Dodge on a
cloud to save David (Psalm 18:9-12) and then later
perform Part Two by popping a wheelie on a cumulous into Egypt
and started kicking over idols (Is 19:1)." Instead
he asks:
quote:
And if His words do not mean that there will be
actual signs in the heavens,His words must have another
meaning.Perhaps Dee Dee will tell us what His words
mean.
Sure I will, when Jerry tells me when the
sun and moon were darkened when ancient Babylon and Egypt were
judged (Isaiah 13:9-10; Ezekiel 32:7-8)and when the
host of heaven was dissolved in the judgment upon ancient Edom
(Isaiah 34:4-5). And while he's at it, he can throw in
Matthew 16:27-28.
Not much needs saying here. Jerry responds:
Dee Dee just
cannot leave behind her mistaken notion that the Lord Jesus is
saying that those men to whom He was speaking would still be
alive to see all the things fulfilled.However,how could that
be possible considering the fact that the Lord Himself said
that He did not know WHEN these things would come to pass?And
if He did not know when they would come to pass,how could He
possibly say that they would still be alive when they were
fulfilled?Here are His words:
"But of that day and hour
knoweth no man,no,not the angels in heaven,but My Father
ONLY"(Mt.24:36).
The Lord Jesus did not know the "times
or the seasons" because those things "the Father has put in
His own power"(Acts1:7).By His own admission He did not know
when these things would happen,so He surely would never
speculate and tell these men that they would see these things
when in fact He could not know if that was true or
not.
Next,Dee Dee did not provide her references to her
statement that "History records that not one Christian died in
the seige of Jerusalem."Nor did she even comment on the fact
that Scripture reveals that when Jerusalem is attacked the
Lord Jesus says that "I will seek to destroy all the nations
that come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).
We all know
that those who came against Jerusalem in AD 70 enjoyed a
complete and total victory.No one who came against Jerusalem
was destroyed.We also know why Dee Dee did not respond to this
point.She has no answer.
Immediately before the Lord
told His Apostles of the signs of His coming,he said the
following words to say to Jerusalem:
"For I say unto
you,Ye shall not see Me henceforth,till ye shall say,Blessed
is He that cometh in the name of the
Lord"(Mt.23:39).
In other words,the Lord´s return would
be marked by Israel´s repentance.But we all know that Israel
did not repent in AD 70.But all this means nothing to Dee
Dee.When Scriptual facts do not fit into her ideas,she just
IGNORES them.
Dee Dee also failed to answer my question
as to the meaning of the Lord´s words about the things which
will immediately follow the great tribulation.If His words do
not literally mean that there will be signs in the
heavens,then His words must have another meaning.After all,all
Scripture "is profitable for doctrine,for reproof,for
correction,for instruction in righteousness..."
So
perhaps this time Dee Dee will give us her interpretation of
the meaning of the Lord´s words in regard to these things.And
Dee Dee seems to think that these words of the Lord were only
figurative,perhaps she will consider the fact that John
actually saw visions of these so-called "figurative"
words.
"There was a great earthquake,and the sun became
black as sackcloth of hair;and the moon became like blood;and
the stars of heaven fell unto the earth...and the kings of the
earth,and the great men,and the rich men,and the chief
captians,and the mighty men,and every slave,and every free
man,hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the
mountains..."(Rev.6:12-15).
And finally,I will ask Dee
Dee when ALL THE TRIBES OF THE EARTH saw the Lord come in His
glory?:
"And then shall appear the sign of the Son of
Man in heaven;and then shall ALL THE TRIBES OF THE EARTH
mourn,and THEY SHALL SEE THE SON OF MAN COMING IN THE CLOUDS
of heaven with power and great glory"(Mt.24:30).
Did
that happen in AD 70,Dee Dee?
Jerry's "mix and match" attempt at the beginning is profoundly inane. It was said to the disciples that they would not know times or seasons. Jesus only claims not to know day or hour; Dee Dee will say more of this below. About all Jerry deserves credit for -- debating credit -- is pressing back on the points Dee Dee did not answer -- credit he loses for ignoring about 80% of what Dee Dee did say. On the other hand, I'm not blaming Dee Dee at all -- this is the same distraction tactic that Skeptic X uses when he can't answer arguments.
The point about Matthew 23:39 is one worth noting. Jerry tries to tie this repentance to the parousia return, but the word is not used in the surrounding prayer at all. I would answer that this repentance is still in our own future; there is no sign that it is a predicate for the parousia here. (Note of course that this is before the Olivet Discourse.)
Now Dee Dee, Round 4:
Perhaps Jerry
needs to slow down a bit because he has utterly failed
to answer the numerous proofs I have given for an irrefutably
first century context. He seems to think that posting another
question is an adequate answer. Not! So here again are just SOME of the fatal
challenges that Jerry has either ignored or obfuscated or
both:
ONE: "Genea" indisputably
does mean in our text "the whole multitude of men living at
the same time."; TWO: Even
"genea" did mean "race," the specific identification of
destruction of the Temple that then existed and the
city that then existed unequivocally thrusts the entire
prophecy into the first century because all the prophesied
things MUST happen within relatively quick succession as
totally necessitated by Matthew 24:33, Mark 13:29, and Luke
21:31.; THREE: Since said
desctruction is a NONREPEATABLE event , there is NO
prophesy of any future Temple for any future antichrist to
desecrate ;FOUR: There are no
years left to Daniel 9 since Jesus specifically
identifies what Temple is in view in that prophecy - the
first century Temple.; FIVE: Matthew 24:15-21 and Luke 21:20-24 are
speaking of the same event. ; SIX: His interpretation puts the inane statement in
Christ's mouth, "Most assuredly I say to you, the Jewish
race will not pass away until all these things happen to the
Jewish race," a reductio ad
absurdum.
What do I hear in response do all
these issues?? Nothing but crickets.
So now Jerry raises yet
another of his infamous "yeah but" questions without actually
addressing the fatal blows already dealt to his system. He is
now claiming that since Jesus said that He did not know the
day or hour (Matthew 24:36)that He certainly could not
have been making a timing statement in verse 34.
Poppycock. I have already proven from OTHER timing
verses in this very passage that my position is
cumulatively correct. Exactly what is the problem with
saying that the generation can be known but not the
exact day and hour? When a woman is pregnant no one knows up
front the exact day or hour of the delivery, but they
certainly know it will be within a certain time span. This is
why Jesus exhorted His disciples to pray that their flight be
not on a Sabbath (and what relevance would THAT have to modern
times) nor in the winter (again much more relevant to a first
century context). It would surely happen to them but there was
some sway about where in that large time frame these events
would fall.
Jerry also complains that I did not provide
references to my statement that no Christians died in the
siege of Jerusalem. Is that the best he can do?? I have
numerous sources for this information but here is just one for
the record… Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 3.5.3. He
also complains that I did not comment on Zechariah
12:9, "I will seek to destroy all the nations that come
against Jerusalem." Wrong again, I was alluding to that issue when I said, "Now
whenever it gets too hot in the NT kitchen for Jerry he likes
to trot out selected portions of the OT…" Until Jerry deals
with the numerous mortal wounds to position within the
Discourse itself, I will only comment briefly on Zechariah
12 (but enough to be a tack in his seat nonetheless).
Jerry said,
quote:
No one who came against Jerusalem was
destroyed.
Really?? Funny, most of the world thinks
that the Roman Empire has long since ceased to exist. (And
take a gander at Daniel 2:44-45 which places the coming
of the Messianic Kingdom squarely within the time of the
ancient Roman Empire...no gap) Again, if Jerry knew his
ancient history well he would be aware that the Romans never
prospered as they once did after 70AD and the Empire's decline
can well be placed as beginning at that very point. What
happened to Rome?? It was converted and dismantled, just as
Jesus declared in Revelation 19, they fell by the sword
that proceeded out of His mouth. My second comment on
Zechariah 12 focuses on verse 4 in which it is
stated that this battle is fought on horseback. Really
now?? Does Jerry really believe that this alleged future
battle will be on horseback?? Most futurist writers
seem to be fond of envisioning Cobra helicopters, but then
again, they must abandon literalism to do
so.
Jerry also insinuates that I have not answered his
question about the "coming" of Christ in the Olivet discourse
and the "heavenly" disturbances. That is simply not
true. I answered by challenging Jerry to explain his
"literal" hermeneutic in OT passages using similar language to
which he has been absolutely SILENT. The Bible must interpret
the Bible otherwise we are guilty of being hopelessly
anachronistic. Jerry of course is avoiding having to be
consistent in his "literalism" lest it be exposed for the
nonsense it is. And here has to be the most ridiculous
statement made yet:
quote:
....perhaps she will consider the fact that John
actually saw visions of these so-called "figurative"
words.
Jerry do you really want to fall on
your own sword like that?? Are you really suggesting that
since John had "visions" of things, that necessitates that the
things "envisioned" must be taken "literally"? Wow, look
out!!! Because Jerry then MUST believe Jesus is a literal
wooly baa-baa lamb with seven horns and seven eyes
(5:6), that satan will be bound by a literal chain
(20.1), and with a literal tail will reach up through
the atmosphere and bring down one-third of the stars unto the
earth (one star would absolutely destroy the
earth)(12:4), and that a literal ten headed monster
will literally raise up from the ocean and come a-slathering
across the land 13:1.
Now back to the main
issue at hand….. the other "near" temporal indicators in the
Gospels support the first century referent for "this
generation," specifically Matthew 16:27-28 and Matthew
10:23. If it is possible (as Jerry alleges and I
vehemently deny) that Matthew 24:34 (and its parallels
in Mark and Luke) can mean something else, and even though the
context is clearly first century, what other texts illuminate
this? The clincher is when we compare:
Luke
21:31-32 - So you also, when you see these things
happening, know that the kingdom of God is near. Assuredly, I
say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till
all things take place.
with
Matthew
16:27-28 - For the Son of Man will come in the glory of
His Father with His angels, and then He will reward each
according to his works. Assuredly, I say to you, there are
some standing here who shall not taste death till they see the
Son of Man coming in His kingdom.
This combination
of verses tells us exactly what time frame "this
generation" is referring to. Let me explain….. Luke states
that when all these things happen, the Kingdom
of God would be near, AT THE DOORS… and it would happen within
"this generation." Matthew 16:28 tells us that
there were some standing there that would not taste death
until they saw the Son of man coming in His kingdom. The parallels are painfully inescapable.
Matthew himself gives us the definition of "this generation
not passing away," it means "some of those standing there will
not taste death until…."
Since I regularly deal with Skeptics who are pedantic literalists like Jerry, I can't help but appreciate the language here.
If Jerry reads this, perhaps he would answer our quiz question:
Regrettably Jerry is an example of one of many Christians who continue to read a text produced in a society highly geared towards symbolism as being literal -- as Dee Dee puts it, being "hopelessly anachronistic". We point readers to our same points against Skeptic X here and recommend as well that Jerry read something like this. If he doesn't, he may as well lay his back bare for a Skeptical whupping someday.
As it turns out though, the preceding got Jerry off his duff a bit and he produced a much longer post to end Round 4:
It has been a
long time since I have seen any thing so pitiful as Dee Dee´s
interpretation of the following Scripture: "And it shall come
to pass in that day,that I will seek to destroy all the
nations that come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).
I
remarked that "No one who came against Jerusalem was
destroyed."In response,Dee Dee says: "Really?? Funny,most of
the world thinks that the Roman Emrire has long since ceased
to exist."
But Dee Dee,can´t you read? The Lord says
that He will destroy the nations IN THAT DAY!!!
She
says that "the Romans never prospered as they once did after
70AD and the Empire´s decline can well be placed as beginning
at that very point."Well,the Lord doesn´t say that IN THAT DAY
that the nations would begin their decline.He says that HE
will defeat them in that day.
The reason that Dee Dee
is so desperate that she would offer such wild exegesis is
simple: If the verse is taken literally,then Dee Dee then must
admit the the ideas of the Preterists are in error.But I
say,why shouldn´t we take these verses literally? When the
Lord ascended into heaven from the Mount of Olives,those
witnessing the event were told that He "shall so come in like
manner as ye have seen Him go into heaven"(Acts1:11).And in
the prophetic Scriptures we see Him standing on the Mount of
Olives while He fights against the nations that come against
Jerusalem:
"Then shall the Lord go forth,and fight
against those nations,as when He fought in the day of
battle.And His feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of
Olives"(Zech.14:3,4).
But since Dee Dee has no place
for this in her eschatology she is forced to say that all this
means is the beginning of the decline of Rome.How
pitiful!
Now I will answer all six of Dee Dee´s
points,and you will see that a closeexamination reveals just
how bankrupt her ideas are.
Number One: " 'Genea'
indisputably does mean in our text 'the whole multitude of men
living at the same time." However,she provides no
evidence.More later on this.
Number Two: "Even if
'genea' did mean race; the specific identification of the
Temple that then existed and the city that then existed
unequivocally thrusts the entire prophecy into the first
century because all the prophesised things MUST happen within
a relatively quick succession as totally necessitated by
Matt.24:33,Mark 13:29,and Luke 21:31."
First of all,Dee
Dee speaks of "the city that then existed".But the city of
Jerusalem that existed is the same city that existed after
70AD.And the same can be said for the Temple.By the words of
the Prophet Haggai we can see what might be described as a
principle of CONTINUITY in the history of the Temple.The
Temple that stood at the time of the Lord could be leveled to
the ground and then be rebuilt and still be considered the
same Temple.At the time of the rebuilding of the Temple after
it had been razed,Haggi says:
"Who is left among you
that saw this house in its former glory?"(Hag.2:3).
The
Lord of hosts says,"The latter splendor of this house shall be
greater than the former"(v.9).
So the rebuilt Temple
can also be referred to as "this house" and be in the stream
of the two preceding Temples according to the words of the
Lord of hosts.Therefore,we see that there is only one
city,Jerusalem,and there is only one Temple.
Next,Dee
Dee says that "all the prophesised things must happen within
relative quick succession as totally necessitated by
Matt.24:33,Mark 13:28,and Luke 21:31." But an examination of
those verses indicates no such thing:
"So likewise
ye,when ye shall see all these things,know that it is
near,even at the doors"(Mt.24:33).
Here the Lord is
addressing the "ye" to the whole race of Jews,as He did in the
following verse: "For I say unto you,Ye shall not see Me
henceforth,till ye shall say,Blessed is He that cometh in the
name of the Lord"(Mt.23:39). Here,the people to whom He was
speaking never said, "Blessed is He that cometh in the name of
the Lord".But we do know that in the future there will be
people in Jerusalem that do say those
words.Therefore,it
becomes obvious that when the Lord used the word "ye" He was
referring to the Jewish race.
Next,these same verses
state that "when ye shall see ALL THESE THINGS,know that it is
near…"
One of the things that they must "see" is the
signs that will appear in the heavens,such as the sun being
darkened,the moon not giving its light,and the stars falling
from heaven.And from the context of the Lord´s words,it is
plain that these things will be SEEN-"When ye shall SEE all
these things"-"Take heed,WATCH and pray"…"And I say unto you I
say unto all,WATCH"…"So ye also,when ye SEE these things come
to pass…WATCH ye,therefore,and pray…"
However,Dee Dee
says that there is no need to WATCH for ALL THESE THINGS,but
instead we should only WATCH for some of the things.In Dee
Dee´s theology there is no place for any actual signs in the
heavens.So she just "spiritualizes" them away.But why should
we believe Dee Dee instead of the Lord,Who is warning one and
all to be WATCHFUL for all these things?
Number Three:
"Since said destruction is a NONREPEATABLE EVENT,there is no
prophecy of any future Temple for any future anti-christ to
desecrate."
The Holy Writings contain many "types".The
destruction of Jerusalem in AD70 is a "type" of the "great
tribulation" to come.Epiphanes defiled the Temple then
standing,and he is a "type" of the coming anti-christ who
shall also desecrate the Temple.So an understanding of the
"principle of the continuity in the history of the Temple"
combined with a knowledge of the "types" proves that this
argument of Dee Dee´s has no merit whatsoever.
Number
Four:"There are no years left to Daniel since Jesus
specifically identifies what Temple is in view in that
prophecy-that first century Temple."
But again,if one
understands the "principle of continuity" of the Temple there
is no doubt that this argument of Dee Dee is
worthless.Besides,we know that the events described as
happening at the end of the 70 Weeks have not yet come to
pass.Who in their right mind would believe that "everlasting
righteousness"(Dan.9:24) has been brought unto
Jerusalem?
Number Five: "Matt.24:15-21 and Luke
21:20-24 are speaking of the same event." Again,Dee Dee gives
no evidence to support her claim.But those of us who
understand the "principle of continuity" in regard to the
Temple and who understand the "types" know that the passages
in Luke are a "type" of the great tribulation described in the
passages of Matthew.We see that the days of tribulation will
be "shortened"(Mt.24:22),and that happens,as previously
mentioned,when the Lord seeks "to destroy all the nations that
come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).And all Dee Dee can say is
that this must represent the beginning of the decline of
Rome.Again,Dee Dee has no place in her theology for this event
so she must "spiritualize" this verse away.
Number Six:
"His interpretation puts the innane statement in Christ´s
mouth.'Most assuredly I say to you,the Jewish race will not
pass away until all these things happen to the Jewish race,' a
reductio ad absurdum."
Well,if anyone is an expert on
the ABSURD,it is Dee Dee.But the Lord says that the Jewish
race shall not pass until all these things be fulfilled.And
considering the many horrors that the nation of Israel must
suffer through,it is not surprising at all that the Lord would
assure them that their beloved chosen nation of Israel would
continue and would inherit all the blessings that had been
promised.Why would this seem strange?Did not Paul assure them
in like manner that "God hath not cast away His people whom He
foreknew"?So there is nothing absurd in the idea that the Lord
would assure these men that ethnic Israel would survive the
many trials and tribulations that will take
place.
Number Six: This is about the meaning of the
word "generation" at Matthew 24:34. As I pointed out
earlier,the Lord Himself says that not even He knows "the day"
when that will happen (Mt.24:36).He states that the "times and
seasons" has "the Father put in His own power"(Acts1:7).So are
we to assume that the Lord Himself,Who doesn´t know the day or
the "times and seasons",is going to SPECULATE and say that the
day will happen during the lifetimes of His Apostles?That is
what Dee Dee does.She builds her doctrines on nothing but
SPECULATION!She asks,"Exactly what is the problem with saying
that the generation can be known but not the exact day and
hour?"
Well,John was forced to correct some other
speculation concering other words of the Lord Jesus at John
21:21-23.On this occasion,the Lord Jesus said to Peter
concerning John,"If I will that he tarry till I come,what is
that to thee?" These words started some SPECULATING that the
Lord had said that John should not die.They has INFERRED that
the Lord´s words must mean that.But John corrected this faulty
inference.This false rumor shows the possibility of
misunderstanding God´s words.Christians must seek to
understand God´s Word accurately.And that is not possible if
we attempt to build doctrine on wild speculation and
inference.
And that is exactly what is wrong with Dee
Dee´s approach to Scripture.The Lord states in no uncertain
words that He does not know the day when these things will
come to pass.But Dee Dee makes a wild assertion that He may
not know the exact time,He surely has an idea as to the
approximate time.And with that she attempts to build her
doctrine.Another pitiful excuse for SOUND DOCTRINE.
Now
that I have demonstrated conclusively that none of Dee Dee´s
SIX points have any merit whatsoever,perhaps she will answer
my previous question.When did the following take
place?:
"…and then shall all the tribes of the earth
mourn,and they shall see the Son of Man coming in the clouds
of heaven with power and great glory"(Mt.24:30).
And
when did the following occur?:
""When the Son of Man
shall come in His glory…before Him shall be gathered all the
nations;and He shall separate them one from
another"(Mt.25:31,32).
Since I answered all of Dee
Dee´s points,perhaps she will now return the
favor.
I'll give Jerry a hint about "in that day" -- it isn't always "just a day" --
Gen. 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens...
Wasn't the earth created in seven days, not one? This is real -- keep in mind I just had a Skeptic who tried to claim contradiction on this basis. I'll ask Jerry the same questions. May we conclude that Genesis 35:3 makes clear that Jacob experienced his troubles during a single day of distress? How about Leviticus 14:1-9, does this mean that the rules in effect in the day (14:2) of a leper's cleansing, which take about a week, take merely one day to go through (probably they meant that it would seem like a week even though it takes a mere Jerry day!). A "day" just didn't necessarily carry the meaning of a 24 hour period -- does Jerry expect the "Day of the Lord" to last only 24 hours? (It would probably shock him to know that the word usage draws back to a general understanding of an ideal warrior as someone who could vanquish a foe in a day!) So in other words, Zech by no means translates out to God defeating Rome or any enemy in a 24-hour period. That's the sort of reading pedantic literalism -- which I daresay is the truly "pitiful" aspect of this discussion -- will get you. In this regard Jerry is no better off than Skeptic X with the way he answers the matter of signs in the heavens. We'll see Dee Dee elucidate on this next up.
We answer about Acts 1:11 in our Olivet link above. Now let's look at that Haggai bit. One of the issues here is that Jerry reads "this house" as though it allows a present tense understanding. There are two problems with this. The first is that the word "this" (zeh) means "this" or "that" or "the other" -- so that there is no real sense of a present tense at all. The second problem is that the use of the word "latter" and the distinguishing from the other Temple is a distinction that is not made in the Olivet Discourse. Jerry is resting a great deal of weight on a tiny Hebrew word that won't bear the pressure, especially when the respective contexts are considered. Dee Dee will note a similar point with the NIV and NKJV and offer some added pressure as well.
One point Jerry can be granted is on types. I would allow the possibility of a "repeat performance" as I have in my Olivet essay -- but this would not preclude the need for a thorough and complete fulfillment by 70 AD. The types argument does not derail Dee Dee's arguments at all -- if just gives Jerry and other futurists a chance to suggest a future fulfillment, and leaves them with an enormous number of problems still for the past.
Has "everlasting righteousness" been brought to Jerusalem? No, but that is not a problem because Jerry hasn't got his prophecy straight. Daniel 9:24 lays out things for the Jews to accomplish, and which they failed to do. When Jesus entered Jerusalem on a donkey, that was their chance to recognize him as King and finish their transgression, and so. They didn't. They failed in their assignment, as the rest of the passage predicts they would.
Dee Dee, Round 5:
First I will
comment on Jerry's misguided reliance on Zech. 12 and
the important point that I made that he conveniently
left out. He gets really excited over my statement that
the decline of the Roman Empire can be dated to the
destruction of Jerusalem and exclaims:
quote:
But Dee Dee,can´t you read? The Lord says that He
will destroy the nations IN THAT DAY!!!
But Jerry can't you read??
The battle described is fought on
horseback. What part of that phrase is confusing?? The
"horse" or the "back"?? Jerry seems to be
insinuating that the phrase "in that day" indicates an
immediate event (even within one literal day), not an
event that can be understood over a period of time.
Horsefeathers. The Bible shows great fluidity with the phrase
"that day". In fact the text in question (Zech. 12:9)
merely says "in that day I will seek to destroy all the
nations…" Other texts within Zechariah itself prove his wooden literalism to be nonsense. Zech.
2:11; 3:10;13:3-4; 14:8-9; 14:20-21 are passages which
Jerry would take to be occurring over an entire "Millennium,"
and yet this "thousand years" (in Jerry's view) is called
"that day." Here are just some other Scripture
references using "that day" which refer to a period of time
Ex 13:8; Jdg 18:1; 1 Sam 18:18; Is 2:11, 4:2, 11:10, 17:7;
Hos 2:16. He is once again gored on his own horn. That has
got to hurt. And to really gut Zech. 12-14 from being of
any usefulness to Jerry, Zech. 13:7-9 places this
destruction of Jerusalem squarely within the first century
when the Shepherd is struck. I am sure that Jerry will just
try and shoehorn in a handy-dandy gap, but if he tries that I
have another weapon in my arsenal.
Jerry says,
quote:
But I say,why shouldn't we take these verses
literally?
Yes, Jerry why shouldn't we
believe that it is an ancient battle fought on
horseback?? Ouch!! Oh, you're not quite so
literal as you thought? Now to Jerry's attempts at
damage control….
quote:
Number One: " 'Genea' indisputably does mean in our
text 'the whole multitude of men living at the same time."
However,she provides no evidence.
Really?? Who's posts have you been
reading?? If you mean I gave no evidence for it when just
recapping the points you have dodged, you are right…. Because
the evidence was already given, that is why I said you
were dodging them. I defeated each and every Explaining
Away option that you gave for "genea" up to that point to
which you responded by just asking another question as if that
made it all better. The cream of Greek scholarship (Thayer;
Ardnt and Gingrich) as well as each of the major translations
all agree with me. Do we believe them? Or do we believe
Jerry? And all of Jerry's gerrymandering (pun intended)
absolutely depends on "genea" not meaning what these
Greek scholars categorically state that it does mean in
the text in question. If Jerry is wrong, and the overwhelming
scholarship agrees that he is, his goose is
cooked. Goose anyone? [and as a sidenote, fellow futurists
also overwhelming disagree with him on this point]
Onto
the Temple, Jerry is claiming, based upon some verses in
Haggai, that a rebuilt Temple could be considered the
same Temple as the one that preceded it (BTW using Toussaint's
material almost word for word). Well, there are some
translational issues involved (the NKJV and NIV rendering of
2:9would actually defeat his attempted point), for
argument's sake, let's just say they support Jerry's point.
Well then Jerry, is each incarnation of the Temple
literally the same Temple?? No, but you are claiming
that the Bible allows a nonliteral identification of them.
Well aren't you aware that the Bible also gives numerous
examples of nonliteral identification of heavenly signs and
phenomena such as Is. 34:4-5 speaking of a past
judgment on Edom???
All the host of heaven shall
be dissolved, and the heavens shall be rolled up like a
scroll; All their host shall fall down as the leaf falls from
the vine, and as fruit falling from a fig
tree.
Haggai is just a smokescreen. Jerry's
view requires that Christ's ONE solemn declaration of
the destruction of the Temple have two referents, one
in 70AD and one yet future. The one in 70AD would
unbelievablyNOT be the primary referent but just a
prefiguring of the one in the future. Does the text
literally say that or even hint at that?
Absolutely not. Here are Christ's words and my
commentary:
Then as He went out of
the temple (the Temple that existed back
then), one of His disciples said to
Him, "Teacher, see what manner of stones and what buildings
are here!" ( notice that they are asking about the
actual stones and buildings that existed back
then) And Jesus answered and said to
him, "Do you see these great buildings? Not one stone shall be
left upon another, that shall not be thrown down."
(referring to the stones that made up the Temple
that existed back then!)
Next…..Then, as some spoke of the temple, how it was
adorned with beautiful stones and donations, He said, "These
things which you see- (the stones and decorations
that the disciples had just pointed out) the days will come in which not one stone shall
be left upon another that shall not be thrown down."
(the stones which the disciples had just pointed
out)
Lastly…… Then Jesus went out
and departed from the temple, and His disciples came up to
show Him the buildings of the temple. And Jesus said to them,
"Do you not see all these things? Assuredly, I say to you, not
one stone shall be left here ( notice the word
"here" it is referring to those actual stones, the ones
that existed then) upon another,
that shall not be thrown down."
Now it is
the height of textual torture to claim that the Temple that existed BACK
THEN was not the primary focus of
this prophecy and of the disciple's questions. The text
is absolutely silent about any future Temple
whatsoever… it is manufactured out of whole cloth by
futurist presuppositions. Jerry's claims logically lead to the
position that Jesus pretty much ignored their obvious
questions or tricked them into thinking He was speaking of
the Temple that existed then with a sleight of hand
switch-a-roo without any hint whatsoever. (kind of like
the trick the angel Gabriel pulled on Daniel, despite the fact
that Daniel was supposed to "know and understand" the vision)
And notice very carefully, though Jerry claims reliance on an
alleged "continuity of the Temple" (which is something that
Toussaint pretty much made up), does he have the temerity to
claim "continuity" of the very stones and adornments of the
first century Temple? Notice that a literal
interpretation of Jesus' words requires that any future Temple
be built of the exact same materials. And there
would be no "continuity" in the first place. God's Temple is
no longer a building made of stone… it is the Church
(Ephesians 2:19-22), that is where the "continuity"
lies.
In claiming to deal with my point that ALL
of the events are clearly said to happen within a relatively
short period of time (and definitely within the lifetimes of
one generation of people) as totally necessitated by
Matthew 24:33, Mark 13:29, and Luke 21:31, Jerry does
the greatest act of obfuscation that he has done yet. Here is
one of those verses for reference:
You also, when
you see all these things, know that it is near-at the doors!
Jerry goes on to argue that the "you" in this
verse must refer to the Jewish race and claims that it is the
same "you" in Matthew 23:39, "For I say to you, you
shall see Me no more till you say, 'Blessed is He who comes in
the name of the LORD!' " In so saying Jerry has fallen off the
theological cliff. The "you" in 23:39 in Jerry's view
is STILL a specific group of people living at a specific
time!! It is not the whole Jewish race spanning
over the millennia. Jerry is not expecting every Jew dead and
alive to repent before Christ can come. So he has defeated his
own argument. If the "you" in 23:39 is the same "you" in
24:33 then "all these things" are seen by that same one
specific group of people living at a specific time.
Thank you Jerry for proving my point. It cannot be
referring to events that just "begin" in the first century
with the AD70 event, and then culminate at the end of time. A
future group of Jews cannot see (especially in Jerry's
wooden hermeneutic) the destruction
of the Temple and city in AD70, thus, Jerry has made
fulfillment impossible in the future since he admits that at
least a portion of the Discourse IS primarily referring
to AD70. As I said before, with that admission he has sold the
farm. When the things prophesied happen, "it" is near - at
the doors!. If some of "all these things" happened in the
first century, then they all must have.
Taking
another angle and considering that Jerry is claiming that the
"you" in the Olivet Discourse is referring to Jews of all
time, why does Mark say, "But watch out for
yourselves, for they will deliver you up to
councils, and you will be beaten in the
synagogues." Why would the whole Jewish race be
beaten in the synagogues?? They
wouldn't. This is clearly speaking of the
first century persecution of the Christians by the Jews. First
century Christians are the "you" in this passage, and would be
the same "you" in Luke 21:31. Jerry is entangled in his
own web of theological puzzle-piecing once again. Follow the trail of "you's" in the passage and see
what nonsense results from his assertion. Also notice that the
text shifts from "you" to "they" in several
places thoroughly embarrassing to Jerry's position (Luke
21:27; Matthew 24:30; Mark 13:26).
As far as presenting NO evidence that
Matt.24:15-21 and Luke 21:20-24 are speaking of the
same event, the text speaks for itself more eloquently than I.
The Matthew passage is in red and the
Luke passage is in blue:
Therefore when you see the 'abomination of
desolation,' spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing in the
holy place" (whoever reads, let him understand),
But when you see Jerusalem
surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation is near.
Then let those who are in Judea
flee to the mountains. Let him who is on the housetop not go
down to take anything out of his house. And let him who is in
the field not go back to get his clothes.
Then let those who are in Judea flee to the
mountains, let those who are in the midst of her depart, and
let not those who are in the country enter her.
But woe to those who are
pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days!
And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the
Sabbath.
But woe to those who
are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those
days!
For then there will be
great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of
the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be.
For these are the days of
vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
For there will be great distress in the land and wrath upon
this people. And they will fall by the edge of the sword, and
be led away captive into all nations.
Remember
that Matthew and Luke are recounting the same
Discourse… not different Discourses given at different times.
In order for Jerry's view to be correct, within this
ONE Discourse, Jesus said certain exact phrases
two times (i.e. he spoke two times of flights out of
Judah and woes to pregnant women etc.) referring to two
different events without any clue that He was doing
this and no textual record that He did this. The Gospel
writers do not say that He did this and an honest reading of
the text shows that both Matthew and Luke are recording the
same one and only reference to this event in the
Discourse. This makes Jerry's view impossible. This is all of
course in addition to the first century time indicators
already presented… including Matthew 16:27-28 which
Jerry did not address.
Now to Jerry, round five -- in which Jerry returns to form and ignores the responses given:
No one who
read my last response would argue that I did not respond to
all of Dee Dee´s SIX POINTS. I answered each and every point
in detail.I then asked her to return the favor and answer my
two questions.But she did not!She did not answer either one of
them.Instead,she goes back to her same old points that I have
already refuted,and all the while not adding anything new.She
just rehashes the same old thing,all the while EVADING the
qustions I posed.
And I can very well understand why
she would EVADE the questions.First,I asked her when the
following verse occurred: "…and then shall all the tribes of
the earth…shall see the coming of the Son of Man coming in the
clouds of heaven with power and great
glory"(Mt.24:30).
We all know that that never
happened.But the Lord said that event would be "seen".And my
next question also concerns this very same event,when the Lord
comes "in the clouds of heaven with power and great
glory".When did this event happen,Dee Dee?:
"When the
Son of Man shall come in His glory…before Him shall be
gathered all the nations;and he shall separate them one from
another…"(Mt.25:31,32).
When did that happen,Dee
Dee?Can´t you read,or did you just evade these questions on
purpose?This is the third post where I have asked you about
when Matthew 24:30 happened,and I have yet to get an
answer.
I will address a couple of her points,beginning
with her words that because we see the battle being fought in
Jerusalem on horseback then this could not possibly be
referring to a battle that can be fought in the future.Dee
Dee,are you aware that the modern army of the USA has units
made up of soldiers who fight on horseback?Do you not believe
that it would be possible that circumstances might bring to
pass a situation where it might be an advantage to fight on
horseback.So we see that since Scripture does not match her
ideas as to how a battle might be fought in the future she is
ready to dismiss anything that might be "literal" in these
verses.
Next,she says that the passages in Zecharia
must have happened in the first century "when the Shepherd is
struck".But if we continue to read from the verses that speak
of the Sheperd,we read the following: "And His feet shall
stand in that day upon the Mount of Olives" while He "fights
against those nations" that come against
Jerusalem"(Zech.14:3,4). Perhaps Dee Dee will tell us when
that occurred in the first century.She asks why we shouldn´t
believe that this refers to an ancient battle?Well,Dee
Dee,tell us when this happened in ancient times and then I
might consider your idea that this refers to an ancient
battle.
Earlier Dee Dee said that the word
"generation"(genea) at Matthew 23:36 could not refer to the
wicked race of Jews that the Lord Himself called "ye
generation of vipers".But the Greek expert that the Preterists
themselves quote extensively agrees with me.One can go to the
web site of "PreteristArchive.com" and see the many times they
quote the Greek expert,Henry Alford (c.1810-1871),who was the
Dean of Canterbury.Now listen to what he says concerning the
use of "genea":
"It may be well to show that 'genea'
has in Hellenistic Greek the meaning of a race or family of
people.See Jeremiah 8:3,70. Compare Matthew 23:36 with verse
35…'This generation' did not slay Zacharias-so that the whole
people are addressed.See also chapter 12:45,in which the
meaning absolutely requires this
sense"(Anderson,"Misunderstood Texts of the New
Testament",p.47).
So even the Greek expert that the
Preterists themselves cite repeatedly agrees with me
concerning the use of "generation" at Matthew 23:36.And we can
see that this must also be the case later in this same
discouse of the Lord: "For I say unto YOU,YE shall not see Me
henceforth,till YE shall say,Blessed is He that cometh in the
name of the Lord"(Mt.23:39).
And since the people
standing there that day never said those words,we must believe
that the Lord´s words are addressed to "the whole people",as
Alford says.The Lord is addressing the "race of
Jews",especially those in the future who will indeed
say,'Blessed is He that cometh in the name of the
Lord".
And since even the Greek expert of the
Preterists says that the word "genea" can indeed be used in
the sense of a "race of men",then we can see that it can be
used in that sense at Matthew 24:34.And since it is used in
that sense in that verse,the word "ye" in the previous verse
can also be used as referring to the race of Jews.And with
that all of Dee Dee´s arguments go up in a cloud of
smoke-exposed for what they really are--nothing but hot
air!
Even though Dee Dee continues to EVADE the
questions I posed,I will answer another of her verses that she
pulls out to attempt to prove her weird ideas.She says that
the following verse applies to the destruction of Jerusalem in
AD 70:
"There are some standing here,who shall not
taste death,till they see the Son of Man coming in His
kingdom"(Mt.16:28).
Are we suppose to believe that the
coming of the Lord Jesus in His kingdom is the same thing as
the "great tribulation"?The events of this tribulation are so
bad that we see the words,"Blessed are the
dead"(Rev.14:13).Are we suppose to believe that the Apostles
were praying for this time of horror when they uttered the
words,"Thy kingdom come"? How ridiculous!!! This only proves
that Dee Dee will say ANYTHING in order to derfend the
indefensible.
If we but examine the words of
Peter,there can be no doubt that the Lord´s words at Matthew
16:28 were fulfilled at the Transfiguration
(Mt.17:1-8):
"…we made known unto you the power and
coming of our Lord Jesus Christ,but we were witnesses of His
majesty.For He received from God,the Father,honor and
glory,when there came such a voice to Him from the excellent
glory,This is My beloved Son,in Whom I am well pleased.And
this voice which came from heaven we heard,when we were with
Him in the holy mount"(2Pet.1:16-18).
Therefore,we can
be sure that these Apostles saw the Lord in His kingdom at the
Transfiguration.Anyone who believes that the "kingdom" refers
to the destruction of the "great tribulation" must have a
screw loose somewhere.
So,as anyone can plainly see,I
have answered Dee Dee´s points in a straightfoward way.I have
not been forced into having to "spiritualize" every single
Scripture that seems to demonstrate that my beliefs are
wrong,as Dee Dee does.I have used the Greek expert that the
Preterists themselves use to make my point.I have used the
words of Haggai to prove the idea of the "principle of the
continuity of the Temple".I have used the Lord´s own words
where He Himself says that He does not know the "day" when all
the things He described will come to pass.
And what do
we hear from Dee Dee.Only her feeble attempts to throw out the
Scriptures that prove that she is wrong because they do not
match her ideas as to how the great battle in Jerusalem will
be fought.And she cannot even make her "spiritualizing" to
match with the events of history.I quoted the following
verse:
"And it shall come to pass,in that day,that I
will seek to destroy all the nations that come against
Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).
Dee Dee said that this refers to
the fact that "the Roman Empire has long since ceased to
exist."She further states that "the Roman´s never prospered as
they once did after 70AD and the Empire´s decline can well be
placed as beginning at that very point."
Well,not only
does Dee Dee attempt to re-write the events in Holy
Scripture,she also attempts to do the same with the history of
the Roman Empire.And that is because Rome continued to prosper
after AD70.We see that the ruler Nerva "enlarged the Roman
Empire to its greatest extent" between the years 98 to 117 AD
("Encyclopedia Americana").
And when Dee Dee is not
attempting to change the plain meaning of Scripture or is not
attempting to change the facts of history,she is EVADING the
questions that I ask.These questions are very relevant to the
subject of this discussion,but Dee Dee continues to EVADE
them.
I will ask her one more time.Dee Dee,when did
these events occur?:
"…and then shall all the tribes of
the earth mourn,and they shall see the Son of Man coming in
the clouds of heaven with power and great
glory"(Mt.24:30).
"When the Son of Man shall come in
His glory…before Him shall be gathered all the nations;and He
shall separate them one from another…"(Mt.25:31).
As
that great American,Cassius Clay,said,"You can run,but you
cannot hide."
We'll assume that Jerry is right about the modern military having horse regiments -- I don't know if that is true or not -- but the only way such "display" or ceremonial troops would become "advantageous" is if all of our airplanes, tanks, battleships, and vehicles are gone. Then we have to train those horses and people for battle as opposed to display. Y2K didn't manage that; maybe Jerry thinks we'll have a repeat of The Day the Earth Stood Still. We'll see Dee Dee answer the rest (including Jerry's amateurish attempt to address the history of Rome from an encyclopedia -- Jerry's using Skeptical research methods!).
Dee Dee, Round Six:
Wow, Jerry actually believes that a future battle
against Jerusalem will be fought on horseback! Why
aren't the Palestinians building up a considerable cavalry if
this the optimum way to attack the Jews?? This would be hysterical if Jerry weren't
actually serious. Will Jerry be consistent and also
believe, according to Ezekiel 38 and 39, that "Russia"
will also fight Israel on horseback with swords and shields
(38:4), bows and arrows (39:3), and wooden
javelins and spears (39:10)? Notice also that
Israelites will not need to go out to the forests to gather
wood (39:10). Really? How many Israelites do
you think are doing that today?? And notice the targets of
the enemy attack: silver, gold, and cattle
(39:13). Does Jerry really think that anyone is
interested in Israel's livestock?? Where are the Cobra helicopters Jerry?
Jerry again mishandles scholarly sources. Desperate to find someone that agrees with him
(even most futurists don't), he quotes Henry Alford concerning
"genea" -
quote:
"It may be well to show that 'genea' has in
Hellenistic Greek the meaning of a race or family of
people.See Jeremiah 8:3,70. Compare Matthew 23:36 with verse
35…'This generation' did not slay Zacharias-so that the
whole people are addressed.See also chapter 12:45,in which
the meaning absolutely requires this sense"
The errors here are numerous. Jeremiah
8:3 still means the multitude of people living at a
given time, not a whole race!! See for yourself.
Jeremiah 8:70 does not even exist. Matthew
23:36 does not claim that "this generation" slew
Zacharias, it identifies upon whom the judgment will come. If
Jerry wants to support the idea that Matthew 12:45 and
Matthew 23:36 are referring to the whole Jewish race, then
he has just condemned ALL Jews of ALL time as
hideously wicked, demonized, and guilty of all the righteous
blood shed on the earth. Jerry has also claimed that
Alford is cited heavily on a particular website and
that "preterists do quote him extensively as a Greek expert to
support their claims." That is simply untrue. That
particular site lists excerpts from ONE of Alford's works in
its "database" section that contains excerpts from the works
of DOZENS of scholars. It is mentioned nowhere
else on the site, Jerry is once again not exactly
truthful. Anyways, Alford is hardly an expert that Jerry will
want to rely upon to support his position. Towards the end of
his life, Alford waffled on his previous prophetic views and
actually said this about genea:
quote:
It is matter for just surprise that such
disregard should have been shown by expositors to the
express limitations of time laid down by our Lord ; that
forced and unnatural meanings should have given to
such words as aiwn [and] genea [emphasis
mine].
Ouch! Jerry is once again guilty of, at a minimum,
not thoroughly researching his sources and proving my point
for me. There was also an incredible earlier snafu by Jerry.
When I commented that making "genea" mean "the Jewish race" in
Matthew 24:34 put inanities in Christ's mouth, Jerry
said,
quote:
But the Lord says that the Jewish race shall not pass
until all these things be fulfilled. And considering the
many horrors that the nation of Israel must suffer
through,it is not surprising at all that the Lord would
assure them that their beloved chosen nation of Israel would
continue and would inherit all the blessings that had been
promised.Why would this seem strange?
Slowly now… Jerry is claiming that the
entire Olivet Discourse is about events that will happen to
the Jews. What then would be the point of Christ assuring
the Jews that they will still be around as a race when these
things happen to the Jews as a race?? Remember Christ
opened this statement with the very solemn declaration,
"Most assuredly I say to you….." This would be
equivalent to me saying, "I tell you the truth, wherever
you go, there you are." It is ridiculously stating the
obvious. Also, Jerry does not believe the Jewish race will
EVER pass away, making Christ's statement even more
inane. Jerry has a tremendous burden of proof here that he
has not even come close to meeting. Remember that
everything else he said falls to ashes
if I am correct that "this generation" inMatthew
24:34 means the "whole multitude of men living at a
particular time." Here is the evidence in my
favor:
The cream of Greek scholarship
(Thayer; Arndt and Gingrich) all agree with me and use
Matthew 24:34 as an example of the normal meaning of
"generation";
All of the major Bible translations
render this verse as "generation" or an equivalent concept
(thus more Greek scholarship agrees with me);
Every
other place in the Gospels where the phrase "this generation"
is used it unequivocally means "contemporaries";
and,
The context of Matthew is one of building and
impending judgment upon the first century Jews, not Jews of
all time.Jerry lays the unique guilt of the first century
apostates upon Jews of all time.
In light of
all of this evidence, Jerry has the temerity to
say,
quote:
She builds her doctrines on nothing but
SPECULATION!
And please notice the deafening silence
from Jerry on my exposition on the use of the word
"you" in the Discourse. Please answer Jerry, why
will Jews be delivered up to synagogues and beaten?…. Why does
the text switch from "you" to "they"??? And also, are you
going to have the chutzpah to continue
to defend the idea that there is a completely textually
INVISIBLE Temple in the Discourse that is the primary
referent to the prophecy and that Matthew and Luke are
referring to different events?? There is not one thing in
the Discourse that did not happen in the first century.
Why must the whole first century world be
reincarnated in your view? The prophecy was
completely fulfilled right on time. I challenge you to
find one thing that was not.
With regards to
Matthew 16:27-28 Jerry utterly ignores the contextual
case that I made with comparing those verses to Luke
21:31 and tastes his own foot once again with:
quote:
Are we suppose to believe that the coming of the Lord
Jesus in His kingdom is the same thing as the "great
tribulation"?
Sigh. Jerry himself believes that
Luke 21:25-28 is describing the coming of Christ after
the Great Tribulation and what does Luke say… this "coming"
heralds the coming of the Kingdom. Jerry did not at
deal with the very close connection between "this
generation will not pass away" and "some of those
standing here will not taste death." He can only piecemeal
these timing verses because the cumulative case would clobber
him senseless. Here are the verses again because they require
close attention:
Matthew 16:27-28 - For the
Son of Man will come in the glory of His Father with His
angels, and then He will reward each according to his works.
Assuredly, I say to you, there are some standing here who
shall not taste death till they see the Son of Man coming in
His kingdom.
Jerry once again insists on putting
inanities and Jean Dixon-ish predictions in Christ's
mouth. As before, Christ introduces this statement with His
very solemn intro, "Most assuredly I say to you…." The
Transfiguration was only days away, anyone could
predict that a group of people would still be alive in a few
days. Also futurists disconnect verse 28 from 27,
but that cannot be as they are very tightly connected
in the passage. In verse 28, Jesus is giving a solemn
declaration of the timing of the event in verse 27.
It is unavoidable. If we are still
waiting for "the Son of Man to come in the glory of His Father
with His angels," then some who were with Jesus must
still be alive!! So then we must look for an event that was
far enough in the future where most of Jesus' hearers
would be dead, but not so far in the future where they
all would be dead. Is there such an event? Yes! The
destruction of Jerusalem in AD70. Where were the angels and
the reward in the Transfiguration Jerry? You cannot ignore
those phrases (and the close similarity with Matthew
25:31).
quote:
Are we suppose to believe that the Apostles were
praying for this time of horror when they uttered the
words,"Thy kingdom come"? How ridiculous!!!
Jerry you need to get more Biblically
literate. The martyred saints, which would include Saint Paul,
were (and are even in your view) absolutely praying for this
time when they would be vindicated (Revelation 6:9).
You keep getting tangled in your own feet. You believe that
the "Kingdom" cannot come until after some alleged
future Great Tribulation, so you also are praying for that
event to come. And ironically, dispies are paying to transport
countless Jews to Jerusalem to be slaughtered. Why aren't you
warning them to stay away?
[sarcasm]Hmm, the
Encyclopedia Americana is Jerry's scholarly source to
refute my statement on the decline of the Roman Empire?
[/sarcasm] He claims that since Rome expanded in size it could
not have been declining. Jerry's simplistic rendering of
complex vagaries of history would also be laughable if he were
not serious. Noted historian Edward Gibbon documented that it
was Rome's expansion that was the beginning of its fall as
follows, "But the decline of Rome was the natural and
inevitable effect of immoderate greatness. Prosperity ripened
the principle of decay; the causes of destruction
multiplied with the extent of conquest; and, as soon as
time or accident had removed the artificial supports, the
stupendous fabric yielded to the pressure of its own weight."
With regards to the "coming of Christ" and by
implication the cosmic disturbances (Matthew 24:29-30),
although I HAVE answered this question at least
THREE times by asking Jerry to defend his wooden hermeneutic, he has ignored that
challenge. The answer is easy as pie if you know the OT. It
happened in the events of the destruction of Jerusalem and the
sweeping away of the vestiges of the Old Covenant order. Jesus
is making a clear allusion to Daniel 7:13-14. Please
read those verses in Daniel carefully and notice the
direction of the coming. It is not DOWN to Earth
but UP to the Ancient of Days on a cloud to receive His
Kingdom (hint - Christ rules from
Heaven). If we let the Bible interpret the
Bible, it is crystal clear what is going on. Jesus is
speaking in the idioms and language of an OT prophet, in fact,
if you look at the NASV, you will see that these Matthean
verses are indicated as a direct quote of Isaiah
13:9-10 giving us the OT framework in which it must be
understood. Here is the Isaiah passage:
"Behold,
the day of the LORD comes, cruel, with both wrath and fierce
anger, to lay the land desolate; and He will destroy its
sinners from it. For the stars of heaven and their
constellations will not give their light; The sun will be
darkened in its going forth, and the moon will not cause its
light to shine.
This passage, in its original
context, is speaking of a past historical judgment upon
ancient Babylon. Jesus is giving apostate Judaism a
back-handed slap by comparing them to Babylon and stating that
they will suffer the same fate. Throughout the whole OT
(the only Scripture the disciples had with which to
interpret Jesus' words), "collapsing universe,"
"decreation," and "lights out' imagery is used to describe
God's temporal judgments. For similar language describing past
judgment events see: Isaiah 34:4-5; Jeremiah 4:23-26;
Ezekiel 32:7-8; Amos 8:9 for just a FEW examples. For SOME
similar passages describing God "coming" in judgment or battle
see: Genesis 11:5; 2 Samuel 22:8-12; Psalm 18:9; Isaiah
19:1; Isaiah 31:4; Hosea 8:1; Micah 1:2-4. Notice also the
repetition of "clouds" and judgment: 2 Samuel 22:12;
Jeremiah 4:13; Ezekiel 30:3; Nahum 1:3; Zephaniah 1:14-15;
These passages bear remarkable
similarities to the Olivet Discourse. No one believes in
these past historical judgments recorded by the OT that the
stars of heaven and their constellations and the sun and the
moon did not give their light. These heavenly bodies
are often used in Scripture as symbolic of power and
governments. Jerry relies upon a very thin reed in Haggai to
support some alleged continuity of the Temple, why can't he
let the Bible interpret the Bible in this passage with the
wealth of passages that teach this?? When
our ideas conflict with the Bible actually says, it is our
ideas that must get "Left Behind," not the
Bible.
No comment is needed for now; Jerry in his round 6 remains in form:
Dee Dee
states that the "cosmic disturbances" and the event when "all
the tribes of the earth shall see the Son of Man coming in the
clouds of heaven with power and great glory" refers to "the
events of the destruction of Jerusalem and the sweeping away
of the vestiges of the Old Covenant order".
However,it
is perfectly clear that her statement is utterly
unjustified.Proving again her ineptitude,she overlooks the
words that state that the "cosmic signs" and the coming of the
Lord happen AFTER the "great tribulation-"Immediately AFTER
the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened…"
So it is obvious to anyone who would use their brain
that these "cosmic disturbances" could not be in reference to
the destruction of Jerusalem,because according to Scripture
that must take place BEFORE the "cosmic disturbances".Dee
Dee,what were you thinking?More blunders of this magnitude and
the preterists themselves will disown you.
These verses
are so important to the whole scheme of the Olivet
Discourse,and this is the best that Dee Dee could do!How could
this happen?How could she overlook the words,"Immediately
after the tribulation"?
And WHEN,we might ask,did all
the tribes of the earth SEE the Son of Man coming in the
clouds of heaven with power and great glory?By the words of
John we know that this is not just figurative language,because
John states in no uncertain terms that "He cometh in the
clouds,and EVERY EYE SHALL SEE HIM…and all the kindreds of the
earth shall wail because of Him"(Rev.1:7). If this stupendous
event happened in 70AD,surely there would be some mention of
it in the history books.But I know of no such account of this
astounding event in any account of history.
And what
about the event that follows His coming when every eye shall
see Him?-- "When the Son of Man shall come in His glory…before
shall be gathered all the nations;and He shall separate them
one from another,as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the
goats"(Mt.25:31,32).
Did this take place in heaven,or
upon earth?Joel supplies the answer: "I will gather all
nations,and bring them down into the Valley of Jehoshaphat…Let
the nations be weakened,and come up to