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Muslim apologist Osama Abdullah has issued a challenge to Jews and/or Christians here. Many of the elements within the challenge are representative of typical apologetic and polemical approaches of proponents of Islam. In this article, we will be examining Mr. Abdullah's claims in light of proper Biblical exegesis.

First of all, Mr. Abdullah outlines his challenge to Christians:

Prophecies about Islam in the Bible - My open challenge to anyone to refute this:

The sections of this article are:

1- My open Challenges #1, 2 and 3.

2- Irrefutable proof from the Bible that Jesus wasn't GOD, and he Prophesied about the coming of Muhammad (by the name) after him.

3- I challenge you!

4- Conclusion.

5- Rebuttals to this article.

Aside from the many prophecies about Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him in the Bible in this section, I would like to openly challenge any Jewish Rabbi or Christian Priest or Minister to answer the following questions about some prophecies in the Bible that were fulfilled only by Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him:

The section to which Mr. Abdallah refers in the latter paragraph will not be dealt with directly in this article. We will rather focus specifically on the items mentioned directly on this challenge. However, for interested readers, we do recommend the following resources in which Mr. Abdallah's polemics should be compared(here, here, and here). Let us continue.

Mr. Abdullah begins:

My open Challenge #1:

In Deuteronomy 33:2, we see Moses peace be upon him predicting that GOD Almighty will execute His Holy Judgement in the city of Paran by 10,000 of Believers:

"And he said, The LORD came from Si'-nai, and rose up from Se'-ir unto them; he shined forth from mount Pa'-ran [Mecca in Arabic], and he came with ten thousands of saints: from his right hand went a fiery law for them. (From the King James Version Bible, Deuteronomy 33:2)"

We also read about the same prophecy by Prophet Enoch peace be upon him:

"And Enoch [Idris in Arabic, one of Allah Almighty's Prophets peace be upon all of them to the people of Israel.] also, the seventh generation from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord came with ten thousands of his saints, to execute judgment upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly committed, and of all their hard [speeches] which ungodly sinners have spoken against him. (Jude 1:14-15)"

Now, according to the Islamic history, the city of Mecca (Paran) was liberated by Prophet Muhammad's 10,000-men army. The irrefutable historical proofs for this are located in this article: The story of the 10,000 Muslims who liberated Mecca (Paran) in the Bible.

Mr. Abdallah claims that Enoch and Moses predicted Mohammad's conquest of Mecca with 10,000 of his followers. This is a common prooftext utilized by Muslim apologists, which claims to represent the advents of Moses (Sinai), Jesus(Seir), and Mohammad(Paran), yet the argument breaks down for several reasons. First, each text quoted above says that the *Lord* came from Sinai, Seir, and Paran. Muslims do not believe that Mohammad is divine so this prophecy cannot apply to him. Secondly, the prophecy in each case claims that the Lord came with ten thousandS(plural) of saints, not ten thousand(singular). Therefore, Mohammad's regime is, at best, only half of the required number. Thirdly, the prophecy states that the Lord would come *from* Paran, NOT go to Paran. Mohammad went from Medina to Mecca, not reverse. Fourthly, both Seir and Paran are near Egypt in the Sinai peninsula(see Genesis 14:6; Numbers 10:12; 12:16-13:3; Deuteronomy 1:1).[1] However, Jesus ministered in Palestine and Mohammad in Mecca and Medina. Mr. Abdullah further claims that Paran is Mecca which, of course, is not accurate, but we'll get to that shortly.

Mr. Abdallah next asks the following questions:

Where in the Bible do we see directly or indirectly, remotely or inremotely, the number 10,000 being associated or linked to any Prophet in the Bible, for any place or any time? Where in the Bible do we see any Biblical Prophet leading any type of 10,000-men army of any kind?

And, where in the Bible do we see any Prophet executing the Judgement of GOD Almighty specifically in the city of Paran (Mecca, the city that Abraham took Hagar and Ishmael to)? If Muhammad who liberated the city of Paran (Mecca) with 10,000 Believing Men (Saints) wasn't the one who fulfilled this Biblical Prophecy, then who was that Prophet?

Mr. Abdallah here creates a false dilemma. The subject of the verses in question is God so we would not expect to see any Biblical prophet fulfill what Mr. Abdallah insists is a prophecy. So what does this verse indicate? Sam Shamoun indicates this in another article that responds to Abdallah's claims on Deuteronomy 33:2:

Sinai, Seir and Mount Paran refer to the locations that Israel traversed during their 40-year sojourn in the desert:

"On the twentieth day of the second month of the second year, the cloud lifted from above the tabernacle of the Testimony. Then the Israelites set out from the Desert of Sinai and traveled from place to place until the cloud came to rest in the Desert of Paran. They set out, this first time, at the LORD's command through Moses." Numbers 10:11-13

"So Miriam was confined outside the camp for seven days, and the people did not move on till she was brought back. After that, the people left Hazeroth and encamped in the Desert of Paran." Numbers 12:15-16

"The LORD said to Moses, 'Send some men to explore the land of Canaan, which I am giving to the Israelites. From each ancestral tribe send one of its leaders.' So at the LORD's command Moses sent them out from the Desert of Paran. All of them were leaders of the Israelites." Numbers 13:1-3

"At the end of forty days they returned from exploring the land. They came back to Moses and Aaron and the whole Israelite community at Kadesh in the Desert of Paran. There they reported to them and to the whole assembly and showed them the fruit of the land. They gave Moses this account: 'We went into the land to which you sent us, and it does flow with milk and honey! Here is its fruit.'" Numbers 13:25-27

"These are the words Moses spoke to all Israel in the desert east of the Jordan-that is, in the Arabah-opposite Suph, between PARAN and Tophel, Laban, Hazeroth and Dizahab. (It takes eleven days to go from Horeb to Kadesh Barnea by the Mount SEIR road.)" Deuteronomy 1:1-2

"Then you replied, 'We have sinned against the Lord. We will go up and fight, as the Lord our God commanded us.' So every one of you put on his weapons, thinking it easy to go up into the hill country. But the Lord said to me, 'Tell them, "Do not go up and fight, because I will not be with you. You will be defeated by your enemies.'" So I told you, but you would not listen. You rebelled against the Lord's command and in your arrogance you marched up into the hill country. The Amorites who lived in those hills came out against you; they chased you like a swarm of bees and beat you down from SEIR all the way to Hormah. You came back and wept before the Lord, but he paid no attention to your weeping and turned a deaf ear to you. And so you stayed in Kadesh many days-all the time you spent there." Deuteronomy 1:41-46

It becomes quite evident that Sinai, Seir and Paran do nor refer to Moses, Jesus and Muhammad as some Muslims erroneously assume. It refers to God appearing to his people to guide them throughout their sojourn prior to their entrance into the Promise Land. Dr. J.H. Hertz, editor of Pentateuch and Haftorahs, Hebrew Text English Translation and Commentary, comments:

2. The LORD came from Sinai. The mountain of Revelation, to make His abode in Israel's midst. Sinai was the starting-point in the manifestation of the Divine glory to Israel.

And rose. A metaphor of sunrise. God "dawned" on them; had 'risen' for them, and had shed forth the light of His law upon Israel, so that henceforth they walked in His light. from Seir. The hill-country of Edom, to the east of Sinai.

Mount Paran. Perhaps the mountain-range forming the southern boundary of Canaan. The Divine Presence journeyed, as it were with Israel from Sinai, through Seir, through Paran, and then finally through the desert; aiding and guarding them, even until they became established in the good inheritance Divinely promised to the Fathers.

Holy. Better, of holy ones. As in Psalm LXVIII, 18, God is here poetically depicted as coming forth from the angelic hosts that surround His throne. (Hertz, p. 909; the Soncino Press, London second edition; bold emphasis ours)

Interestingly, this is how Hertz translates the Hebrew:

And he said: The LORD came from Sinai,

And rose from Seir unto them;

He shined forth from mount Paran.

And He came FROM the myriads holy,

At his right hand was a fiery law unto them.

The rendering, from the myriads holy, is due the Hebrew preposition min. Some render the preposition as with, while others like Hertz as from. If one opts for the latter rendering, then the text would be referring to God descending from the midst of the myriads of his angels in heaven to deliver his people. (cf. 1 Kings 22:19-23; Isaiah 6:1-8; Hebrews 12:22; Revelation 5:11) Yet either rendering has nothing to do with Muhammad.

The following passages provide additional proof that Deuteronomy 33:2 is speaking of the Exodus:

"O LORD, when you went out from Seir, when you marched from the land of Edom, the earth shook, the heavens poured, the clouds poured down water. The mountains quaked before the LORD, the One of Sinai, before the LORD, the God of Israel." Judges 5:4-5

"When you went out before your people, O God, when you marched through the wasteland, Selah the earth shook, the heavens poured down rain, before God, the One of Sinai, before God, the God of Israel ... When the Almighty scattered the kings in the land, it was like snow fallen on Zalmon. The mountains of Bashan are majestic mountains; rugged are the mountains of Bashan. Why gaze in envy, O rugged mountains, at THE MOUNTAIN where God chooses to reign, where the LORD himself will dwell forever? The chariots of God are tens of thousands and thousands of thousands; the Lord [has come] from Sinai into his sanctuary. When you ascended on high, you led captives in your train; you received gifts from men, even from the rebellious-- that you, O LORD God, might dwell there. Praise be to the Lord, to God our Savior, who daily bears our burdens. Selah Our God is a God who saves; from the Sovereign LORD comes escape from death. Surely God will crush the heads of his enemies, the hairy crowns of those who go on in their sins. The Lord says, 'I will bring them from Bashan; I will bring them from the depths of the sea, that you may plunge your feet in the blood of your foes, while the tongues of your dogs have their share.' Your procession has come into view, O God, the procession of my God and King into the sanctuary. In front are the singers, after them the musicians; with them are the maidens playing tambourines. Praise God in the great congregation; praise the LORD in the assembly of Israel. There is the little tribe of Benjamin, leading them, there the great throng of Judah's princes, and there the princes of Zebulun and of Naphtali. Summon your power, O God; show us your strength, O God, as you have done before. Because of your temple at Jerusalem kings will bring you gifts. Psalm 68:7-8, 14-29

The reference to "the One of Sinai", "Seir", "Edom", "the Mountain", "the Lord from Sinai," and "tens of thousands and thousands of thousands" are clear allusions to Deuteronomy 33. These passages are looking back to the Exodus as the major event in which God demonstrated his great power and love for his people, and as the basis for trusting God's unfailing promises to deliver his righteous remnant. Hence, the oldest biblical witnesses testify that Deuteronomy 33 is a poetic description of the Exodus event."

Moving right along, Abdallah claims:

Wasn't Muhammad through the Divine Religion of Islam the one who ended the idol worshiping of the 365 gods, and ended the brutal slavery and the torturing of women (burying daughters alive at the age of 4 was the pagan Arabs custom)?

Didn't Muhammad bring the Arabs from the total darkness of polytheism and evil to the Light of Worshiping the One True Living GOD Almighty and associated no partners with Him?

Wasn't Muhammad fruitful, and a true man of GOD Almighty?

Mr. Abdallah here raises some interesting topics, but which are not necessarily pertinent to his challenge as to whether or not Mohammad was prophesied in the Bible and whether or not Jesus Christ is God. Therefore, we shall reserve comment on these topics. For anyone interested in examining Mohammad's "fruit," we recommend the following page of scholarly articles which examines Mohammad's alleged prophethood in light of the earliest Muslim sources(Qur'an, Sahih Hadith, Sirat, etc.)[2] that are considered authoritative by Muslims here).

Again, please visit The story of the 10,000 Muslims who liberated Mecca (Paran) in the Bible. The proof that the city of Paran is Mecca.

We shall now examine the material within Mr. Abdallah's link which claims proof that the Paran mentioned in Deuteronomy 33:2 refers to Mecca.

Abraham peace be upon him sent Hagar and Ishmael to Paran: Let us look at the following Verses: "Then God opened her [Hagar] eyes and she saw a well of water. So she went and filled the skin with water and gave the boy a drink. God was with the boy as he grew up. He lived in the desert and became an archer. While he was living in the Desert of Paran, his mother got a wife for him from Egypt. At that time Abimelech and Phicol the commander of his forces said to Abraham, "God is with you in everything you do. (From the NIV Bible, Genesis 21:19-22)"

Hagar was an Arab. Abraham peace be upon him had Ishmael from her, who was 13 years older than Issac. After Sarah, Abraham's wife gave birth to Issac, Abraham decided to let Hagar and her son Ishmael go. He sent to the desert of Arabia in the region of Paran.

Mr. Abdallah here is assuming what he has not proven in his assertion that Paran is synonymous with Mecca. The passage he cites from the Bible gives no indication that Paran is in Arabia.

Then GOD Almighty promised Ishmael that from him, He will increase his numbers and make from him a great nation, the Arab nation; "And as for Ishmael, I have heard you: I will surely bless him; I will make him fruitful and will greatly increase his numbers. He will be the father of twelve rulers, and I will make him into a great nation. (From the NIV Bible, Genesis 17:20)"

The Bible clearly says that Paran is south of Sinai in Egypt; "He said: 'The LORD came from Sinai and dawned over them from Seir; he shone forth from Mount Paran. He came with myriads of holy ones from the south, from his mountain slopes.' (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 33:2)" Kedar came from Ishmael; "These are the names of the sons of Ishmael, listed in the order of their birth: Nebaioth the firstborn of Ishmael, Kedar, Adbeel, Mibsam, and Mishma, and Dumah, and Massa, Hadar, and Tema, Jetur, Naphish, and Kedemah: These are the sons of Ishmael, and these are their names, by their towns, and by their castles; twelve princes according to their nations. Kedar and Ancient Arabs (From the NIV Bible, Genesis 25:13)" The Arabian desert region was named after Kedar. See the second map below.

It is worth mentioning that whether or not the Arabs are actually descendants of Ishmael is in dispute (see here for more details), but regardless of the verdict in this case, Mr. Abdallah has yet to explain how Ishmael and Kedar being the ancestors of the Arabs establishes that the Paran where Hagar and Ishmael settled is Arabia, much less Mecca. More below.

The Ishmaelites were Arabs and not Egyptians. They came from the Arabian desert; "As they sat down to eat their meal, they looked up and saw a caravan of Ishmaelites coming from Gilead. Their camels were loaded with spices, balm and myrrh, and they were on their way to take them down to Egypt. (From the NIV Bible, Genesis 37:25)" "take them down to Egypt" means taking them to the land of Egypt. It doesn't mean taking them toward the south direction. When for instance you say "my house is right down the street", it doesn't mean the house is south of the street. The house could be on the north side. The sentence means that the house is on the street, or will be found if the person walks in the path that you lead him to.

The point however in the above Verse is that the Ishmaelites were not from Egypt. They came from another land. They had loaded camels and they were heading to Egypt. Arabs used to rely heavily on camels for traveling.

The Ishmaelites in this case were traveling in a caravan and could have either been from Egypt or anywhere for that matter. How does Mr. Abdallah know, for instance, that the Ishmaelite caravan was not on their way home to Egypt?

And as we've seen from the above Verses regarding Ishmael and his Mother (Hagar) living in the desert of Paran in the South, this clearly proves to us that the desert of Paran is located in Arabia and not in Egypt, since the Ishmaelites are not Egyptians.

Again, these are assumptions that have yet to be proven at all by Mr. Abdallah.

Mecca (Bacca) and Paran:

Let me paste for you the following Verses from the Bible and the Noble Quran:

"Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee; in whose heart are the ways of them. Who passing through the valley of Baca make it a well; the rain also filleth the pools. (From the NIV Bible, Psalms 84:5-6)"

"The first House (of worship) appointed for men was that at Bakka full of blessing and of guidance for all kinds of beings: In it are signs manifest; (for example) the Station of Abraham; whoever enters it attains security; pilgrimage thereto is a duty men owe to Allah those who can afford the journey; but if any deny faith Allah stands not in need of any of his creatures. (The Noble Quran, 3:96-97)"

Here is another typical prooftext used by Muslim apologists. The valley of Baca is said to be a reference to Mecca(since Bakka is synonymous with Mecca) and the house of worship being described as the K'aba. However, this is actually a reference to King Solomon's temple and man's journey to it. For a detailed commentary on this claim, please see here. The author continues,

Then the Israelites set out from the Desert of Sinai and traveled from place to place until the cloud came to rest in the Desert of Paran. (From the NIV Bible, Numbers 10:12)"

Here the desert of Paran means the region of Paran, which would be either at or near Mecca.

"After that, the people left Hazeroth and encamped in the Desert of Paran. (From the NIV Bible, Numbers 12:16)" Here the desert of Paran means the region of Paran, which would be either at or near Mecca.

"So at the LORD's command Moses sent them out from the Desert of Paran. All of them were leaders of the Israelites. (From the NIV Bible, Numbers 13:3)"

"These are the words Moses spoke to all Israel in the desert east of the Jordan--that is, in the Arabah--opposite Suph, between Paran and Tophel, Laban, Hazeroth and Dizahab. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 1:1)"

Again, we see the author making claims based solely upon his assumptions.

So, where is Paran exactly? Contrary to Mr. Abdallah's unfounded assumptions, as we demonstrated earlier, it is actually near Egypt in the Sinai peninsula(Genesis 14:6, Numbers 10:12, 12:16-13:3; Deuteronomy 1:1). An on-line map can be viewed here.

We now move on to point #2:

Prophet Isaiah peace be upon him prophesied that two leaders whom he called "Chariot" would come -- one riding a donkey, and another riding a camel:

"And he saw a chariot with a couple of horsemen, a chariot of asses, and a chariot of camels; and he hearkened diligently with much heed: (From the King James Version Bible, Isaiah 21:7)"

Who are the "couple of horsemen"? They are Jesus and Muhammad peace be upon them. Let us see the proof:

Jesus fulfilled the riding of the donkey prophecy: "And Jesus, when he had found a young ass, sat thereon; as it is written, (John 12:14)"

The quote "as it is written" is referring to Isaiah 21:7.

Isaiah chapter 21 is discussing the fall of Babylon(see verse 9) to the Elamites and the Medes(verse 2). It has nothing to do with prophesying the coming of Jesus and/or Mohammad unless one begs a serious typological question. The couple of horsemen are likely referring to Elam and Media since it is these 2 nations that will bring about the fall of Babylon. Secondly, John is referring to Zechariah 9:9 rather than Isaiah 21:7 in relation to Christ's triumphal entry into Jerusalem on a donkey. Matthew also recognizes the prophetic significance of this event and quotes Zechariah 9:9(Matthew 21:1-5) As a matter of fact, it is evident that John himself in John 12:15 is referring to Zechariah 9:9 as well. Notice also that the prophecy mentions a chariot of asses and camels, not a singular donkey and a singular camel. The Gospels do not record Jesus riding in a chariot of donkeys. Did Mohammad ever ride in a *chariot* of camels? Moreover, there is no rider even mentioned in the prophecy for the chariot of donkeys or the chariot of camels.[3]

It is important to know that no where in the New Testament do we see Jesus riding any camel. No where in the New Testament do we see any fulfillment of any kind about the prophecy of riding the camel.

When we look at Muhammad peace be upon him, he rode the camel several times in his life time. The most popular event of him riding the camel is when he migrated from Mecca to Medina to escape the torture of the pagans.

Not only that, but when the Muslims in Medina wanted to build the first Islamic Mosque and the Prophet's humble Home next to it, they had conflicts among each others about the location, because each group/tribe wanted the location to be as near to them as possible. So, to avoid the conflict of "favoritism", the Prophet peace be upon him ordered for his camel to decide the location by letting it walk and settle in the place that it naturally chooses.

This wisdom from Prophet Muhammad which relied solely on his camel solved the problem.

Abdallah gives us another false dilemma in the first paragraph of the above excerpt since he has yet to prove that Isaiah 21:7 represents a prophecy of a future prophet riding on a camel. The story Abdallah then relates is irrelevant with this being the case.

Now, my open challenge to any Jewish Rabbi or Christian Priest or Minister is as follows:

Where in the Bible do we see the riding of the camel Prophecy being fulfilled?

We see the whole prophecy of Isaiah 21:1-10 being fulfilled in 539 B.C. by the Elamites and Medes under Cyrus when they conquered Babylon.[3]

Who in the Bible was the Prophet that rode the camel to fulfill the Prophecy of Isaiah 21:7? The New Testament only fulfills the riding of the donkey prophecy in John 12:14, and it claims that it only fulfilled that prophecy.

No Biblical prophet rode on a camel to fulfill this prophecy nor does the text support Abdallah's interpretation. Isaiah 21:7 indicates, as mentioned before, the fall of Babylon and the two horsemen and their chariots were likely symbols of the Elamites and Medes.

There is still a missing fulfillment of the riding of the camel in the New Testament. Why?

In light of a proper understanding of the full chapter of Isaiah rather than an isolated prooftext, these verses were fulfilled more than 500 years before the writings of the New Testament and more than 1,000 years before Mohammad's ministry.

If Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him wasn't the one who fulfilled the remaining of Isaiah 21:7 prophecy, then who was that Prophet?

The passage was not foretelling the riding of a camel by a prophet nor does it even mention a rider for the donkeys or the camels in the first place. See again the answer given to the first excerpt of this section.

Abdallah next directs us to a link where this is discussed in more detail along with another passage later in the chapter that he feels has prophetic fulfillment in Mohammad. The first few lines are reiterations of the arguments already addressed in the above segment. Then, we see:

"And, behold, here cometh a chariot of men, [with] a couple of horsemen. And he answered and said, Babylon is fallen, is fallen; and all the graven images of her gods he hath broken unto the ground." (Isaiah 21:9)

Babylon did indeed fall before Islam and the Islamic nation under the guidance of Muhammad (peace be upon him) did indeed succeed in eradicating the worship of idols from Babylon replacing it with the worship of God alone. In fact, the Muslims were the only believers in the God of Isaiah to ever succeed in fulfilling this prophesy.

Whether or not Allah is the one true God or just another idol is, again, up to the individual to decide. However, the author here assumes what he has yet to prove. Besides, Babylon fell more than a millennium before Islam came into fruition and this was accomplished by the Elamites and Medes under King Cyrus, as was clearly foretold in verse 2.

"The burden upon Arabia ..." (Isaiah 21:13)

What does the word "burden" mean? Let us ask the Scofield Study Bible:

"…which also means an oracle is a word sometimes used in the prophetical writings to indicate a divine message of judgment" (Scofield Study Bible New King James Version, note 1, p. 792)

So the Muslims of Arabia (and subsequently Muslims everywhere) would be assigned the burden of God's message.

The prophecy starting in Isaiah 21:13 is indeed a divine message of judgment against Arabia. However, the author's conclusions based on his reference to the Scofield Bible are unfounded. It could just as easily mean, and in fact does mean, that the lands mentioned later in the passage will be conquered. Let us continue:

"The inhabitants of the land of Tema brought water to him that was thirsty, they prevented with their bread him that fled. For they fled from the swords, from the drawn sword, and from the bent bow, and from the grievousness of war" (Isaiah 21:14-15)

In "The Dictionary of the Bible," bearing the Nihil Obstat, Imprimatur, and Imprimi Potest (official Church seals of approval), by John McKenzi, we read that "Tema" is:

"a place name and tribal name of Arabia; a son of Ishmael.... The name survives in Teima, an oasis of the part of the Arabian desert called the Nefud in N Central Arabia."

This word, Tema, is the name of the ninth son of Ishmael (the father of the Arabs), in Genesis 25:13-15 we read:

"And these are the names of the sons of Ishmael, by their names, according to their generations: the firstborn of Ishmael, Nebajoth; and Kedar, and Adbeel, and Mibsam, And Mishma, and Dumah, and Massa, Hadar, and Tema, Jetur, Naphish, and Kedemah" (Genesis 25:13-15). Strong's concordance tells us that this name was also applied to the land settled by Tema the son of Ishmael. It goes on to explain how this word is "probably of foreign derivation". Indeed, this word, Teima, is an Arabic word which means "Barren desert". It remains the name of a city in the Arabian peninsula just north of "Al-Madinah Al-Munawarah," or "Madinah" for short (Please see Map 1, page 491). Muhammad (peace be upon him) and his companions were given sanction to migrate. They departed Makkah during the night and left all of their possessions behind. Upon reaching Madinah they were greeted by its citizens with open arms and Muhammad (peace be upon him) assigned each one of the Muhajireen (citizens of Makkah) to one of the Ansar (citizens of Madinah) to house and feed them until they could strike out on their own. This became the first year of the Arab "Hijra" (Emigration) calendar used in Islamic countries to this day.

The phrase, "Fleeing from the drawn swords," is used by Muslims to demonstrate that this passage prophesies the escape of Mohammad from Mecca where he underwent persecution to Medina (then called Yathrib) where he was given sustenance(food and water). The author apparently implicitly suggests that this is prophetic of Mohammad's journey to Medina since Tema is "just north" of Medina. However, Tema is actually about 400 kilometers north of Medina[3]. Therefore, it is spurious to claim that Medina can somehow fit into this prophecy.

"For thus hath the LORD said unto me, Within a year, according to the years of an hireling, and all the glory of Kedar shall fail. And the residue of the number of archers, the mighty men of the children of Kedar, shall be diminished: for the LORD God of Israel hath spoken [it]." (Isaiah 21:16-17)

Kedar is the second son of Ishmael, the father of the Arabs:

"And these are the names of the sons of Ishmael, by their names, according to their generations: the firstborn of Ishmael, Nebajoth; and Kedar, and Adbeel, and Mibsam." (Genesis 25:13)

Kedar is also synonymous with all of Arabia in general, as in Ezekiel:

"Arabia, and all the princes of Kedar." (Ezekiel 27:21)

Geographically, Kedar is actually located southeast of Israel in present day Jordan.[3]

The Arabs of Makkah, the capital of the paganistic tribes of Arabia of the day, were indeed defeated by the Muslims in the second year after their forced immigration from Makkah to Madinah (The Hijra). This victory signaled the turning point for Islam and a transition from a position of weakness to one of power and victory .

It should be pointed out here that, as mentioned at the beginning of this chapter, the children of Israel, from the tribe of Levi, were distinctly aware of this prophesy. Indeed this is the very reason why they had begun to immigrate from the lush and fertile pastures of their holy land of Israel to the barren parched deserts of Arabia, specifically to Madinah and the surrounding areas of Khaibar, Tema, and others. Because they knew that this is where the final prophet would appear. As mentioned above, these children of the Jews were constantly threatening the Arab inhabitants of Madinah (the tribes of Al-Aws and Al-Kazraj) with his impending arrival and how they would follow him and, through his leadership, they would utterly destroy these Arabs. They had hoped that this prophet would be from their tribe and that their presence in this location might facilitate this hope.

When their awaited prophet finally did come, they rejected him. They wanted a Jewish prophet from their own tribe and not an Arab from the sons of Ishmael. Thus, they allowed their pride to come between them and the truth which they recognized. However, their efforts were not totally in vain. So continuous were their efforts in threatening the inhabitants of Madinah with the final prophet's imminent arrival that when Muhammad (peace be upon him) finally did come, the inhabitants of Madinah immediately recognized him and hastened to follow him before the Jews. These inhabitants of Madinah would later become among those very first followers of Muhammad (peace be upon him) who would one year later go on to fulfill the prophesy of Isaiah by defeating the "mighty men of Kedar" in the very first battle of the Islamic nation, the battle of Badr.

The challenge we shall here present to Abdallah is to present us with some pre-Islamic Jewish literature that records the expectations of the Jews mentioned by the author of this article. The idea that the Jews "efforts in threatening the inhabitants of Madinah with the final prophet's immenent arrival that when Muhammad finally did come, the inhabitants of Madinah immediately recognized him and hastened to follow him before the Jews" is science-fiction in the absence of some kind of written corroboration. Furthermore, the author claims that the battle of Badr was the fulfillment of the prophecy in Isaiah 21:16 because it was the first battle of the Islamic nation. However, contrary to the author's claim, it was actually not one year later nor "within a year"(as Isaiah 21:16 indicates) that the Muslims fought this battle after they arrive in Medina. The journey of Mohammad to Medina took place on September 20th, 622 A.D. However, the Battle of Badr took place in March of 624 A.D.[4], well over the one year time frame specified in the prophecy. Plus, the Battle of Badr was a battle against one tribe of Meccans. According to the author, Arabia in general refers to Kedar(with which, as we noted above, we disagree). If this is the case, is it reasonable to assert that Arabia was defeated just because of the winning of one battle against a Meccan tribe(one of many tribes scattered throughout Arabia at that time)?

The author then goes on to discuss in further detail the Muslim victory over the Meccans in the Battle of Badr. Then, he makes the following interesting comment:

This was the great turning point for the Islamic nation. This battle could be said to have been the beginning of the end for the reign of idolatry and paganism within the land of Arabia. This Muslim nation would then go on to expand to many other nations until it spread from Spain to China, fulfilling many more prophesies in the Bible, including Daniel 2:44, Genesis 15:18-21, and many others.

"And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever. Forasmuch as thou sawest that the stone was cut out of the mountain without hands, and that it brake in pieces the iron, the brass, the clay, the silver, and the gold; the great God hath made known to the king what shall come to pass hereafter: and the dream is certain, and the interpretation thereof sure."(Daniel 2:44-45)

This is an allusion to Nebuchadnezzar's statue dream that is being interpreted by Daniel to be prophetic of kingdoms to succeed that of Babylon(Persia, Greece, and Rome). The author of the above article is apparently asserting that the Islamic Empire fulfilled verse 44. However, it is obvious from a mere reading that this is not the case. The verse says that the kingdom shall never be destroyed, but the Islamic Empire, although once a mighty force, has been disintegrated for quite some time as it fell under European colonial powers. Furthermore, the stone cut out "without hands" indicates that this kingdom would be much different from that of the former kingdoms. Islam, like all of the other empires, spread through military conquests. In this regard, it is truly no different from the others. Muslims could, of course, assert that since Islam is an "Empire of God," that this would qualify it as the "stone cut out without hands." However, this brings us back again to the assumption that Allah is truly God. The successes of the other empires mentioned, including Nebuchadnezzar's, were also attributed to various pagan gods. The point is that we can safely assert that the building of each of these empires had naturalistic explanations. They were accomplished by warfare the establishment of man-made governments. If it was God's will for Islam to be a kingdom that would be established forever, then why did the Empire not endure and conquer the world? Instead, we have seen that Islam's military and political might has rapidly declined in the last couple of centuries. The Christian interpretation of the Stone is that of Jesus Christ, the divine Savior, who will establish His Kingdom on earth upon his 2nd return (or in the preterist view, already has done so). A kingdom ruled by God is one that truly can be said to be cut out without hands. Interestingly, Jesus also calls Himself, in reference to Psalm 118:22, the *stone* which the builders rejected(Matthew 21:42).

"In the same day the Lord made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates: The Kenites, and the Kenizzites, and the Kadmonites, And the Hittites, and the Perrizzites, and the Rephaims, And the Amorites, and the Canaanites, and the Girgashites, and the Jebusites."(Genesis 15:18-21)

This is a prophecy of God's promise to Abraham that his seed would obtain the lands mentioned. As will be established in the 3rd part of Abdallah's challenge, God's covenant came through Isaac, not Ishmael. And, it was through Isaac's seed, and his son Jacob's seed, that the nation of Israel was born. It was the Israelites, almost 2,000 years before Mohammad and Islam came on the world scene, that took control of the land and defeated the peoples mentioned in the prophecy.

Next, the author tells us:

An unfortunate misconception which has managed to creep into many Western beliefs is that Islam was only spread through force and the sword. Today, however, this notion is beginning to be recognized for the absurdity that it was. A Christian missionary, Sir Thomas W. Arnold says:

"...of any organized attempt to force the acceptance of Islam on the non-Muslim population, or of any systematic persecution intended to stamp out the Christian religion, we hear nothing. Had the caliphs chosen to adopt either course of action, they might have swept away Christianity as easily as Ferdinand and Isabella drove Islam out of Spain, or Louis XIV made Protestantism penal in France, or the Jews were kept out of England for 350 years. The Eastern Churches in Asia were entirely cut off from communion with the rest of Christendom throughout which no one would have been found to lift a finger on their behalf, as heretical communions. So that the very survival of these Churches to the present day is a strong proof of the generally tolerant attitude of Mohammedan [sic] governments towards them" (The Preaching of Islam, A History of the Propagation of the Muslim Faith, Sir Thomas W. Arnold, Westminster A. Constable & Co., London, 1896, p. 80).

"Against unbelievers he (Muhammad) enjoined his followers to undertake a holy warefare, but only when attacked. The earlier Moslem[sic] leaders did not try to impose their faith upon other nations" (The History of Christianity in the Light of Modern Knowledge, A Collective Work, Harcourt Brace and co., p. 520)

Muslims did indeed wage many wars, just as many Jews and Christians did both before and after this. Muslims waged their wars in self-defense or in order to abolish idolatry, tyranny, slavery, and oppression. Muslims were commanded to not attack those who did not attack them, to not cut down a fruit tree, to not kill the animals, to not take the people's property, to not harm women or children or old people so long as they did not fight with them, and to not burn crops.

When they were victorious, the Muslims were commanded not to destroy the churches nor the synagogues, nor to force the people to convert to Islam. The people were allowed to continue to practice their religion without persecution or being forced to convert (Compare for example with Numbers 31, and Deuteronomy 20. Please also compare with the great Spanish inquisitions).

There is no compulsion in religion. The right path is henceforth distinct from misguidance" (The noble Qur'an, Al-Bakarah(2):256.)

The Western media has been selling us this ever since the 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon. However, this could actually not be further from the truth. While it is outside our scope, a few comments seem to be in order.

In the Qur'an, one will find verses of peacemaking(even in the face of persecution), verses of self-defense, and verses of aggression. Mohammad had "revelations" over a 23 year period of time(about 610-632 A.D.). These "revelations" began in Mecca when Mohammad had only a few converts. At this time, needless to say, Mohammad nor his followers had any military might and Mohammad admonished them to endure persecution without raising the sword. Soon, Mohammad allowed for Muslims to fight, but only when it was for self-defense. After Mohammad got settled in Medina, he and his followers attacked pagan caravans in order to obtain booty. Eventually, he gained enough of a following and military power to start forcing his religion on people. He forced pagans to convert to Islam or die and Christians and Jews were given the 3rd option of paying the Jizya tax to keep practicing their respective religions. After Mohammad had died, many Muslims were leaving Islam, and his successor, Abu Bakr, waged war on the apostates and killed tens of thousands of them in his efforts of forcing Arabia back into Islam[5]. Mohammad, Abu Bakr, and future Islamic Caliphs waged war on all non-Muslims and were successful in conquering many lands and forcing Islam upon their cultures. What we read in history about the Islamic Empire is a result of these military conquests. Consider the following quotes by Paul Fregosi:

"The story begins around 650 C.E. with the first, unsuccessful siege of Constantinople, and continues with the invasion and occupation, sometimes for hundreds of years, of many European countries. Italy, Sicily, Portugal, France, Spain, Austria, Bosnia, Serbia, Croatia, Hungary, Rumania, Wallachia, Albania, Moldavia, Bulgaria, Greece, Armenia, Georgia, Poland, the Ukraine, and eastern and southern Russia were all battlefields where Islam conquered or was conquered in violent conflicts marked by cruelty, bloodlust, and a fearful loss of life, spread over considerably more than a thousand years. "

"For over a century and a half the world had forgotten this fact, since most Muslim countries were politically impotent and ruled mainly as the colonies or protectorates of European powers."

Lastly, consider the following Sahih Hadith:

"I have been ordered by God to fight with people till they bear testimony to the fact that there is no God but Allah and that Mohammed is his messenger, and that they establish prayer and pay Zakat (money). If they do it, their blood and their property are safe from me" (see Bukhari Vol. I, p. 13).[6]

Furthermore, the author is correct, for the most part, in that Muslims were not to cut down fruit trees in their conquests and were to spare vegetation. However, interestingly enough, this did not stop Mohammad from violating a taboo in place even in his times of burning down date palm trees of the Nadir tribe of Jews in 625 A.D. These trees represented the livelihood of this Jewish tribe. Even some of Mohammad's followers were not happy about the former's decision. Mohammad eventually forced this tribe as well as other Jews out of the Arabian peninsula.[7] Finally, it is also not true that Mohammad did not permit(at least in some situations) the massacres of women and children. There are many Sahih Hadith that support this. For more information on the topic of whether Islam truly promotes peace, whether or not it spread by the sword, and other topics to which we've alluded, the following resources are recommended(here, here, here, and here). We will not cover this in any more depth here though since we have digressed from the topic at hand. However, it seems appropriate to state emphatically that, in all likelihood, the majority of Muslims are not radicals, especially in the West. In fact, most Muslims here in the West seem to follow a "Christianized" version of Islam and are probably unaware of most of the dubious teachings and information recorded in the Qur'an, Sahih Hadith, and Sirat about Mohammad, Islam, and the spread of Islam.

The author alludes to several verses in the Old Testament where the Israelites engaged in wars against their enemies. In this case, chapters discussing the battles with the Midianites and Canaanites are mentioned. However, these are not holy wars that were performed in order to convert people. The Israelites were God's vessel through which justice was brought to evil nations. The only difference in this and the Noahine flood(which both Muslims and Christians believe in) is that God used different means in punishing evil generations. For more on this subject, we recommend this article by Glenn Miller. As far as the Spanish Inquisition and other events like the Crusades are concerned, we indeed agree that these are evil acts perpetrated by those wearing the banner of Christ. However, this was done *in spite* of the fact that Christ taught us to love our enemies(Matthew 5:44-45), not take up a sword against them(Matthew 26:51-54, compare Luke 22:49-51), and evangelize without the use of compulsion. (See also here; the social issues involved are more complex than our opponent indicates.) As touching the Crusades though, and not making excuses for them, the following quote by Paul Fregosi is quite interesting:

"… European history has remained transfixed on the Christian Crusades of the eleventh to the thirteenth century, it has largely ignored these Muslim attacks and invasions...When accusing the West of imperialism, Muslims are obsessed with the crusades , but have forgotten their own longer and more gruesome Jihad."[6]

As I read this section, I notice that the material presented here is familiar and is actually taken from another Muslim polemicist that has already invoked a response found here. The responses to this last section will be taken from this article. The author continues:

If Islam was indeed spread by the sword and not by its spiritual appeal, then how do we explain, for example, the fact that Islam is the religion of the majority of the people of the country of Indonesia even though no Muslim army ever set foot on their land and they can by no stretch of the imagination be labeled as Arabs? The only contact these people ever had with Islam was through Muslim traders who passed through their lands.

"Misha'al is correct in claiming Indonesia was not conquered by force. I would also throw in Malaysia, and parts of Africa. Outside of these areas, all Muslim lands today were conquered by force. And, Islam keeps its people by force. So much for there being "no compulsion in religion". The Islamic law of apostasy is death for those that leave Islam. [Mawdudi, "The Punishment of the Apostate According to Islamic Law", p. 18]. Wouldn't you describe that as compulsion? What do you call a religion that denies freedom of thought and freedom of choice? Muslims are commanded to kill apostates wherever they are. And, Muslims are very brutal to non-Muslims. Even in Indonesia, in the last few years, over 100 churches have been damaged or destroyed by Muslim mobs, some of them numbering in the thousands. [Voice of the Martyr, May, 1998]. Even the head of the largest Muslim political party in Indonesia acknowledged this. So, what does this really say about Islam? Where Islam rules, non-Muslims suffer."

If the truth were to be known, in almost every single battle the Muslims ever participated in, they were almost always vastly outnumbered. For example, when the Muslims finally overthrew the pagan Byzantine superpower in the battle of Al-Yarmook of the year 636 C.E., the Muslim army consisted of 40,000 fighters verses 200,000 solders in the Byzantine army. So although many historians may like to attribute the fall of this superpower to any number of factors such as claiming that they were taxed and weary from previous battles with the Romans, (while not claiming that the Muslims were taxed and weary from their previous battles), and although they refuse to believe that this victory could have come from the Almighty, still, one needs to wonder if this victory were not through divine intervention then how do we explain the fact that an ill-equipped army of Bedouin sheep herders who were outnumbered more than four to one could so resoundingly defeat one of the two "superpowers" of their age?

"This is more historical nonsense. Muslims frequently outnumbered their opponents. And, if you want to get right down to it, where was Allah when the Jews defeated the Muslims in four wars during this century? Some estimates put the population ratio at 80 to 1! If you're looking for who God has helped, look at how the Jews whipped the Muslims. If anything, those victories came from God. Little ol' Israel beat the pants off of Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Iraq, and troops from other Muslim nations as well.

"As far as the Muslims beating the Byzantines; that was no great feat. The Byzantines and Persians were fought out. They had been at war with each other almost continuously for nearly 127 years. Their troops were exhausted and demoralized. The Muslims were relatively fresh and well motivated. ["The People's Chronology", Henry Holt and company].

"History is full of examples of motivated but outnumbered armies winning great battles. Look at how the Vietnamese beat the Americans, the Mexicans defeated the French. the Afghanis beat the Russians. Examine Alexander the Great's exploits, or Julius Caesar's victories. More often than not, they were outnumbered. In fact, Caesar with 15,000 men faced and defeated an army of about 120,000 in 53 BC during the Gaulic wars. I could go on and on. The point is that the Muslim victory over the Byzantine army was no miracle."

So to what events is the prophecy of Isaiah 21:13-17 referring?

"In various places in Scripture, we see where God allows pagan nations to rise in power and punish evil nations, including apostate Israel. In this particular case, God is using Elam and Media(Isaiah 21:2) to bring judgment upon various lands including Babylon(verse 9). An examination of chapters 13-24 of Isaiah reveal that the subjects of judgment are many nations including Moab(Jordan) in chapters 15 and 16, Damascus(Syria) in chapter 17, Egypt and Cush(Ethiopia) in chapters 18-20, and even Jerusalem in chapter 22. In the passage in question, a judgment is pronounced on Arabia and Kedar. The prophet Isaiah recorded this prophecy around 700 B.C. and it was fulfilled when Babylon was conquered in 539 B.C. by the Elamites and Medes under Cyrus. Nebuchadnezzar conquered Northern Arabia and Kedar(605-562 B.C.) which fulfilled the prophetic passage in question. Thus, this prophecy was fulfilled almost 1,200 years before Mohammad and company fled to Medina."[3]

Abdallah continues in phase 3 of his challenge:

In the Old Testament, we read about GOD Almighty promising to create "Great Nations" from Ishmael, Abraham's first Son and the father of the Muslims:

Genesis 12:1-3 1 The LORD had said to Abram, "Leave your country, your people and your father's household and go to the land I will show you. 2 "I will make you into a great nation and I will bless you; I will make your name great, and you will be a blessing. 3 I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse; and all peoples on earth will be blessed through you."

The quote "go to the land I will show you" is referring to the city of Paran (Mecca)... The quote "I will make you into a great nation" is quite interesting. How can GOD Almighty call the Muslims, who came from Ishmael, a "great nation" if they are as the modern Christians of today consider them to be "Satan's followers"? How can we be a "great nation" in the eyes of GOD Almighty if we are hated by Him?

"........and bless Prophet Muhammad and the people of Prophet Muhammad, like You blessed Prophet Abraham and the people of Prophet Abraham........"

As you clearly see, we bless Prophet Abraham every single day of our lives when we pray to Allah Almighty. We also do say "peace be upon him" or "peace and blessings be upon him" when we refer to his name or any other Prophet's name.

Abdallah here makes several mistakes. First of all, God called the Ishmaelites, not the Muslims, a great nation. Assuming that Mohammad and the Arabs were/are descendants of Ishmael, it is the Ishmaelites as a people that would be a great nation. Islam is simply a religion that was founded by a descendant of Ishmael(according to common Muslim assertions), not the nation itself. The Ishmaelite nation was established at least 2 millenia before Islam and there are still Ishmaelites(Arabs) that are not Muslims and there are Muslims that are not Ishmaelites.

Secondly, Christians do not assert that God hates the Ishmaelites(or Muslims). Rather, we assert that God loves all His creation and wishes for all to be saved(John 3:16, II Peter 3:9). (Note as well the meaning of "hate" here.)

Thirdly, Abdallah's assertion that this passage has anything to do with Ishmael is spurious as God was speaking to Abraham. Here are the verses that speak explicitly of the Ishmaelite nation:

"And the angel of the Lord said unto her[Hagar], I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall not be numbered for multitude. And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Behold, thou art with child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the Lord hath heard thy affliction. And he will be a wild man; his hand will be against every man, and every man's hand against him; and he shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren."(Genesis 16:10-12, word in [] is mine)

And,

"And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be. And I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of nations; kings of people shall be of her. Then Abraham fell upon his face, and laughed, and said in his heart, shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? And shall Sarah, that is ninety years old, bear? And Abraham said unto God, O that Ishmael might live before thee! AND GOD SAID, SARAH THY WIFE SHALL BEAR THEE A SON INDEED; AND THOU SHALT CALL HIS NAME ISAAC: AND I WILL ESTABLISH MY COVENANT WITH HIM FOR AN EVERLASTING COVENANT, AND WITH HIS SEED AFTER HIM. And as for Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly; twelve princes shall he beget, and I will make him a great nation. BUT MY COVENANT WILL I ESTABLISH WITH ISAAC, WHICH SARAH SHALL BEAR UNTO THEE AT THIS TIME IN THE NEXT YEAR."(Genesis 17:15-21, emphasis added)

Thus, we see that while God did promise that Ishmael would beget twelve princes(whose fulfillment is further discussed in Genesis 25:12-16) and would be a great nation, He clearly told Abraham that His covenant would be established through Isaac.

Consider also:

"And there was a famine in the land, beside the first famine that was in the days of Abraham. And ISAAC went unto Abimelech, king of the Philistines unto Gerar. And the Lord appeared unto him, and said, Go not down into Egypt; dwell in the land which I shall tell thee of: Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these countries, and I will perform the oath which I sware unto Abraham thy father; AND I WILL MAKE THY SEED TO MULTIPLY AS THE STARS OF HEAVEN, AND WILL GIVE UNTO THY SEED ALL THESE COUNTRIES; AND IN THY SEED SHALL ALL THE NATIONS OF THE EARTH BE BLESSED; Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws."(Genesis 26:1-5, emphasis added)

"And Jacob went out from Beersheba, and went toward Haran. And he lighted upon a certain place, and tarried there all night, because the sun was set; and he took of the stones of that place, and put them for his pillows, and lay down in that place to sleep. And he dreamed, and behold a ladder set up on the earth, and the top of it reached to heaven: and behold the angels of God ascending and descending on it. And, behold, the Lord stood above it, and said, I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac: the land whereon thou liest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed; AND THY SEED SHALL BE AS THE DUST OF THE EARTH, AND THOU SHALT SPREAD ABROAD TO THE WEST, AND TO THE EAST, AND TO THE NORTH, AND TO THE SOUTH: AND IN THEE AND IN THY SEED SHALL ALL THE FAMILIES OF THE EARTH BE BLESSED."(Genesis 28:10-14, emphasis added) So, we see in these verses that it is through Isaac, not Ishmael, and through Isaac's son Jacob, that all the nations of the Earth would be blessed. Jacob went on to beget 12 sons(See Genesis 29:31-35:18) who were the progenitors of the Israelite nation. It was through this nation that Jesus Christ was born(Matthew 1). Thus, the Christian claim that Jesus is the One through which all of the nations of the Earth may obtain salvation is consistent with the testimony of the Scriptures that it is through Jacob and his seed that all of the nations of the Earth were to be blessed. Conversely, the Islamic claim that Mohammad, allegedly an Ishmaelite, is the one who brings salvation to the world is inconsistent with the prophetic testimony of the Scriptures.

Abdallah commences his challenge with the following:

My open challenge to any Jewish Rabbi or Christian Priest or Minister is:

How can the Muslims be cursed and considered satan followers when GOD Almighty in Genesis 12:3 blesses them because they bless Abraham?

Abdallah appears to be under the impression that Christians assert that Muslims are singled out as "Satan's followers" and are specifically cursed. This is not the case. Jesus Christ claimed that it is only through Him that salvation can be obtained(John 3:16, 14:6). Therefore, it is the Christian assertion that anyone who rejects the salvation provided to us by Him is not saved. As for being blessed, Abdallah claims that because Muslims claim to bless Abraham in word(see previous segment) that this entitles them to God's blessings. However, the question then arises as to whether or not Muslims, by following Mohammad, are following the true revelations of God set forth by Abraham and continuing through Jesus Christ. The answer, of course, is for each individual to decide. However, if the Judeo-Christian assertions are indeed correct about God's revelation, then it is Muslims who are denying God's salvation and blessings. It isn't that God's offer is not there. It is a matter of who is willing to accept it.

How can the Muslims be cursed by GOD Almighty when they bow down to Him and only Him in prostration?

Although, contrary to the apparent assertions of Abdallah, Christians do not believe that Muslims are cursed in any particular sense, we continue to assert that their religious system denies the salvation provided to us by Jesus Christ on Mount Calvary.

Yes, the Muslims are the "great nation" that GOD Almighty talked about, they are blessed by Him because they worship non but Him, and they bless Abraham everyday in their Prayers.

While it is true that the Ishmaelites were promised a "great nation" by God, this does not encompass the Muslim faith for reasons already explained. It is also true that Muslims do worship a god Mohammad called Allah. However, Abdallah's assertions are still dependent on the assumption that Allah, as opposed to YHWH or other pagan gods, is the true God(See here for more details on why I differentiate Allah and YHWH although Muslims do not do so). At any rate, God wishes for us to worship Him in spirit and in truth(John 4:21-24). From our perspective, it is only through trusting in Jesus Christ's finished work on the cross that salvation can be achieved. Islam, moreso than any other religion, *specifically* denies this vital doctrine(Surah 4:157).

Finally, verbally blessing Abraham in prayer is not the same as following the true revelations set forth by Abraham and the later series of prophets ending in Jesus Christ. As an aside, it is interesting to note that, by using Abdallah's logic that Muslim = Ishmaelite, it is this nation possibly moreso than any other nation that has *cursed* the seed of Abraham rather than blessed them. Mohammad expelled the Jews from the Arabian peninsula. He massacred the Qurayzah tribe of Jews in 627 A.D. killing between 600 and 900 men and selling the women and children as slaves. As was his custom, he kept 20 percent of the booty obtained from the event and divided the rest among his soldiers. The Jews of the Nadir and Khaybar tribes were also driven out of their homes in 625 and 628 A.D., respectively[8]. Mohammad cursed both the Jews and Christians on his deathbed:

"From Ibn Sa'd page 322:

When the last moment of the prophet was near, he used to draw a sheet over his face; but when he felt uneasy, he removed it from his face and said: "Allah's damnation be on the Jews and the Christians who made the graves of their prophets objects of worship."[10]

Mohammad is also reported to have said:

Abu Huraira reported Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) as saying: The last hour would not come unless the Muslims will fight against the Jews and the Muslims would kill them until the Jews would hide themselves behind a stone or a tree and a stone or a tree would say: Muslim, or the servant of Allah, there is a Jew behind me; come and kill him; but the tree Gharqad would not say, for it is the tree of the Jews.(Sahih Muslim, Book 41, 6985)

Throughout history, in lands that were conquered by Muslims, Jews and Christians were treated as second class citizens. Aside from having to pay the "Jizya" tax for practicing their own religions(Surah 9:29), Jews and Christians were, among other things, required to find another road to walk through when meeting a Muslim coming from the other direction on the road in which they were walking, not permitted to ride horses(although Muslims were permitted to), not build their houses higher than Muslim houses, not allowed to marry Muslim women(although Muslim men could marry Christian or Jewish women), not raise their voices in synagogues and churches loudly enough to be heard from the outside of the building, not practice their religion on their holy days and not celebrate them in public, not carry weapons, not testify against a Muslim in court, wear special clothing and special colors that identified them as non-Muslims(Christians wore blue, Jews wore yellow, and Samaritans wore red), have the women wear shoes that did not match, and Christians were not permitted to enter a public place without wearing a large cross around their necks. This cross had to be metal and needed to be probably at least two pounds in weight. Perhaps worse than anything, a Muslim could not be executed for the murder of a Christian or Jew although the reverse was not true.[9]

To this day, thanks largely to the teachings of Mohammad, the Jews in Israel are surrounded by many countries that have a great animosity toward them. Of course, we want to make an important distinction at this point. There are many who have called themselves Christians who have held similar animosity toward the Jews. However, such attitudes are certainly not derived from the teachings of the Injil(New Testament) unless twisted beyond contextual recognition. On the other hand, Mohammad and the earliest Islamic sources performed and condoned harsh treatment against both the literal seed of Abraham(the Jews) and the spiritual seed of Abraham(Christians; see Romans 9 and 11).

Additional Refutations

While the main body of Abdallah's challenge has been answered in the above sections, we will here be addressing certain claims made in links that he provides at the bottom of his challenge page. In some cases, as above, we will simply refer the reader to various other articles on this site and on the web which, at the very least, will indirectly refute the claims made by Abdallah. Inquisitive readers should compare his material with the material that we provide. We will not be answering the claims from Abdallah's links in any particular order. The first topic we will respond to is an article entitled "Early Christians Rejected Trinity."

Abdallah, after first giving us the names of various early heretical Christian groups, tells us:

Even in the modern age there are churches in Asia, in Africa, the Unitarian church, the Jehovah's witnesses, and even the majority of today's Anglican Bishops do not worship Jesus (peace be upon him) as one in three, as what been report by the "Daily News" 25/6/84 under the heading "Shock survey of Anglican Bishops."

Moreover, the 'Socinianism', the 17th-century Christian also rejects such traditional doctrines as the Trinity and original sin, the founder is Socinus, and his Latinized name of Lelio Francesco Maria Sozzini (1525-1562), the Italian Protestant theologian. Johannes Greber (1874) a former of Catholic priest in his book 'The Communication with the Spirit World of God' in page 371 was written, "As you see, the doctrine of a triune Godhead is not only contrary to common sense, but is entirely unsupported by the Scriptures". So another priest who was deny the trinity.

A theologians, Edouard Schillebeeckx of the Netherlands in 1979 was writings some article that rejects the doctrine of the Trinity. This caused concern to the Vatican.

Here we are given the names of various groups of modern heretical Christian groups as well as some anti-Trinitarian testimonies. Of course, this would not disprove the doctrine of the Trinity and the divinity of Christ any more than examples of unorthodox Muslim movements like the Qur'an-only Muslims[11] or the Nation of Islam would disprove the doctrines of orthodox Islam. Now, let's get back to Abdallah's mention of various early groups who rejected the Trinity. Here is what he wrote:

The Jews also reject the trinity, in addition to the very first groups of Christianity such as the Ebonites, the Cerinthians, the Basilidians, the Capocratians, and the Hypisistarians never know about trinity doctrine at all. The Arians, Paulicians and Goths also accepted Jesus (peace be upon him) as a prophet of God and against the trinity.

While traditional Jews do not believe in the doctrine of the Trinity, there are concepts based in Jewish Wisdom literature, which pre-date Christianity, that corroborate Trinitarian concepts. We will return to this later. For now, let's focus on the topic at hand. Is it true, as Abdallah states, that the very first groups of Christianity rejected the Trinity?

Let's examine the groups that he mentions. First of all, however, let's also outline the general Muslim beliefs about Jesus Christ and we will compare them as we go to those of these various Christian groups. Muslims believe that Jesus is the Messiah, but was sent only to the Jews. Muslims agree that Jesus was born via a virgin birth, performed great miracles, but was not crucified, and hence not buried or resurrected. Along with this, of course, atonement theology as it is based on Christ's work on the cross is rejected.

First up on the list is the Ebionites which we will save until the end. Next, we have the Cerinthians mentioned as one of the first Christian groups that denied the divinity of Christ. This is the earliest group of the various movements mentioned by Abdallah. Interestingly, Abdallah's assertion that the Cerinthians, Basilidians, and Carpocratians denied the divinity of Christ is not entirely accurate. Cerinthus of Ephesus, the founder of this movement, introduced this branch of Gnosticism in the mid to late 1st century. In fact, it is believed by some, including the church fathers Jerome and Irenaeus, that the Apostle John wrote his Gospel primarily in response to this particular heretical movement. Cerinthus taught that God sent Christ, a divine Entity, to dwell within a man named Jesus. Jesus was not born via a virgin birth, but rather through sexual intercourse, but *was* crucified and resurrected. All of this is contradictory to the Islamic Jesus. Most heretical of all is that Cerinthus taught that our Creator is not the supreme God, but a power that was inferior to an even greater, one true god[12]. Needless to say, this is not representative of the God that both Christians and Muslims visualize through studies of our respective Scriptures.

Basilides, founder of the Basilidians, surfaced in Alexandria, Egypt between 125 and 150 A.D. The supreme God as viewed by the Basilidians is named Abraxas. According to their belief system, Abraxas sent Christ, his son, to be enjoined to an ordinary man named Jesus. The God of the Jews, the One in which we believe, according to the Basilidians, was a mere inferior angel that helped to create the earth, one of 365 subordinate sets of angels to Abraxas. The mission of Christ in this case was to teach the people knowledge that had allegedly been lost in battles between the God of the Jews and gods of other countries like Ammon and Moab as well as battles between the peoples themselves. According to this theory, the God of the Jews enticed the people to kill Jesus, and did so successfully, although the Christ, the son of Abraxas, was not harmed. The Basilidians did deny Christ's resurrection, but also denied a general resurrection of all people. Similar to some Muslim theories, they also proposed that Simon the Cyrene was crucified in Christ's stead[12]. Although we see some similarities, the differences between the Islamic Jesus and that of Basilides are more pronounced. Like the Cerinthians, the Basilidians taught that Christ was a divine Emanation of the supreme God who entered a human man named Jesus. This is contradictory to Christianity in that Christians teach that Jesus and the Christ are One and the same. Jesus Christ entered human flesh and lived 33 plus years, was crucified, buried, rose on the 3rd day, and ascended to heaven 40 days later. However, the teachings of Basilides about Christ also contradict the Islamic viewpoints of Jesus in that Muslims deny any divine characteristics of Jesus, and/or Christ, who they also claim is One and the same. Also, Muslims, along with Christians, would not go along theologically with the Basilidians in their teachings about the general resurrection of the dead, or lack thereof, and of the God of the Jews, who is indeed the One and *only* God!

The Carpocratians were a group founded by Carpocrates, who taught a Gnostic doctrine in the early 2nd century. It is asserted that Jude and II Peter were written as refutations to earlier heresies from which this developed. Carpocrates taught that Jesus was a mere man, born naturally (no virgin birth), who contained special knowledge from a previous life. His spiritual superiority allowed him to attain his position as Christ. Also, it was taught that anyone with sufficient power and knowledge could also attain the same spiritual level as did Jesus. This particular group also denied that our Creator is the supreme God. According to Irenaeus, this group believed in reincarnation, which is hinted at by the idea that Jesus had knowledge from a previous life, to which one can only escape bodily existence by seeking out all possible human experiences, even ones that both Christians and Muslims would find morally repugnant. For instance, Carprocrates' son Epiphanius once said, "God must have been joking when he forbade Israel to covet their neighbours' wives, as it was God who had given humans the desire for multiple sexual partners."[12] Obviously, the Carpocratian doctrines of the natural birth of Jesus, reincarnation, the "gradual" achievement of Jesus to be the Christ, the belief that any mere human has the potential to equal the merits of Jesus Christ, and the belief that our Creator is not the supreme God is contradictory to both Christianity and Islam.

We have now located some information on the Hypsistarians and would like to thank "Bill the Cat" for the assist in informing us of a pertinent resource. The Hypsistarians were actually a pagan Jewish sect that existed from about 200 B.C. to 400 A.D. confined mostly to Asia Minor. They did believe in a supreme God(Hypsistos) but refused to acknowledge Him as "Father" as Christians do and also maintained the Jewish distinctions in foods. However, they were Sabbath keepers, unlike Muslims, and most damaging in the Islamic pursuit of parallels, they also worshipped fire and light, something that would be unthinkable to a follower of Islam. Our source informs us that this sect's existence may have been partially responsible for the rapid spread of Christianity in Asia Minor although what they actually thought of Jesus is not even discussed. The fact that this sect actually started at least about 200 years before Jesus came to Earth makes us leary of the claim that this was a Christian group, but it is always possible that there was a general acceptance of Jesus by members of this sect at some point in their history. More information on them would be required to draw definite conclusions on that matter one way or the next [16].

Next we have the mention of Arianism. This is a doctrine that was founded by Arius in the fourth century A.D. While Arius did deny the divinity of Christ, he did, contrary to Islamic beliefs, believe that Christ was begotten of the Father, and was pre-existent.[13]

The Paulicians, a group that appears to have its origins in Armenia, derived their name from the Apostle Paul. Armenia had become a predominantly Christian country in the early 4th century prior to Constantine's conversion. According to Brown, about 300 years had elapsed between this time and the appearance of the Paulicians, although Brown notes it is conceivable that the Paulicians descended from a fourth-century group called the Messalians. Paulicianism is a form of dualism, which is a general belief in equitable forces of good and evil -- which fits the beliefs of Zoroastrians, with whom Muslims substantially disagree [14].

Abdallah next mentions the Goths, whose first Christian missionary was an Arian named Ulfilas, who was converted as a slave in Constantinople when the city was Arian. After Arianism was declining throughout the empire, it did continue to flourish among the Goths, who were outside the empire[15]. In short, the Goths were Arians and we have already shown that Arianism began in the 4th century A.D. and is contrary to Islamic beliefs.

Finally, we have the Ebionites. Glenn Miller has demonstrated that the Ebionites were not one of the earliest Christian movements and were not accepted as orthodox by the earliest Christian groups. See also Miller's response to a Muslim critique of his original article. Furthermore, the Ebionite belief of Jesus Christ has many divergences from the Muslim beliefs. Some notable differences include the Ebionite rejection of the virgin birth of Christ, the belief that He died and was resurrected, and the acceptance of the Gospel of Matthew. Also, the Ebionites reject the Old Testament prophets whereas Muslims, while asserting that our Bible is not the actual inspired Word of God, hold the Old Testament prophets in high esteem. The main similarity between the Islamic Jesus and that of the Ebionites is a rejection of His pre-existence (See here).

Summary: We have demonstrated that Abdallah's list fails to account for what it claims to account. None of the groups analyzed represent the "very first Christians" as their origins can be traced to anywhere between the mid to late 1st century A.D.(between about 20-70 years after Christ's crucifixion and resurrection) and about the 7th century A.D(although we still are looking for material on the Hypsisterians). Furthermore, we admonish the reader to check out the first two links in the previous paragraph, particularly the first one, where Miller establishes the true beliefs of the very first Christians, which included, of course, the belief in a divine Christ. Also, Christ's disciples may have actually written works that are now contained in the New Testament(Injil) in response to the various heretical movements, and/or their beliefs, mentioned by Abdallah. Alas, none of the groups mentioned by Abdallah expressed beliefs in Jesus that are compatible with all of the Islamic beliefs in Jesus, particularly the Cerinthians and Basilidians who actually believed that Christ was a divine Emanation that inhabited a human body. Finally, it is worth noting that the Qur'an recognizes the disciples of Christ and those that believed their message as ones that God gave power through which to "prevail."(Surah 61:14) Thus, the Muslim is taking a position *against* the Qur'an by asserting that Trinitarian Christianity(the Christianity that indeed prevailed and was taught by the disciples) was not a faith powered by God. Of course, we also realize that in other places in the Qur'an, concepts such as the divinity of Christ and the Trinity are denounced(Surah 4:171; 5:73, etc.-although these and other surahs do not reflect actual Christianity, but rather are straw men), but this does not nullify the fact that the Qur'an says that God empowered those that believed the disciples message to prevail, which it did. At any rate, Muslims have taken the anti-Trinitarian position and thus we see anti-Trinitarian polemics. In the upcoming sections, which will be written soon, Lord willing, we will continue to examine more material from the links in Abdallah's challenge.

Abdallah wraps up this link with the following question:

Why, for thousands of years, did none of God's prophets teach his people about the Trinity? At the least, would Jesus not use his ability as the Great Teacher to make the Trinity clear to his followers? Would God inspire hundreds of pages of Scripture and yet not use any of this instruction to teach the Trinity if it were the "central doctrine" of faith?

Christians maintain that God's Trinitarian nature is evident from both the books of the Old Testament(Torah) as well as those of the New Testament(Injil). Furthermore, Jesus clearly taught His divine nature to the apostles(see the above links for pertinent expositions on these topics). The central doctrine of Christianity is Christ's finished work on the cross for salvation from sins. Much is taught about God's characteristics and qualities throughout the Bible which includes, of course, His Trinitarian nature.

Messianic Meandering

Below is a response to Osama Abdallah's article on Isaiah 53. Abdallah takes an interesting "2-pronged" approach in his treatment of this passage. First, he argues that if the Christian interpretation is correct that it agrees with Islam and then presents the Jewish interpretation of this passage. Here we go.

Trinitarian Christians claim that Chapter Isaiah 53 in the Bible confirms Trinity.

Actually, I am unaware of any Christians who use this chapter to confirm the Trinity. However, it is a commonly utilized passage that is prophetically attributed to Jesus Christ, an attribution we will be defending in this response.

This article proves that Chapter Isaiah 53 along with Isaiah 52:13, John 19:36-37 and Psalm 34:20 prove without a doubt that Islam's claim about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross and was raised to Allah Almighty is indeed the Truth. Let us look at the Chapter of Isaiah 53 in the Bible:

Pasted below from Abdallah's site is the 53rd chapter in its entirety, but since the passage of the suffering servant begins in Isaiah 52:13, we'll add those in front using the NIV translation since that is what Abdallah uses: 52:13 See, my servant will act wisely; he will be raised and lifted up and highly exalted. 14 Just as there were many who were appalled at him-his appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human likeness- 15 So will he sprinkle many nations and kings will shut their mouths because of him. For what they were not told, they will see, and what they have not heard, they will understand.

1 Who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed? 2 He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him. 3 He was despised and rejected by men, a man of sorrows, and familiar with suffering. Like one from whom men hide their faces he was despised, and we esteemed him not. 4 Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows, yet we considered him stricken by God, smitten by him, and afflicted. 5 But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed. 6 We all, like sheep, have gone astray, each of us has turned to his own way; and the LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all. 7 He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; he was led like a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is silent, so he did not open his mouth. 8 By oppression and judgment he was taken away. And who can speak of his descendants? For he was cut off from the land of the living; for the transgression of my people he was stricken. 9 He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death [The word "death" does not exist in the original Hebrew text. Here is what the literal translation says: "And it appointeth with the wicked his grave, And with the rich [are] his high places"....This is verified at this link: (Young's Literal Translation)], though he had done no violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth. 10 Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the LORD makes his life a guilt offering, he will see his offspring and prolong his days, and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand. 11 After the suffering of his soul, he will see the light and be satisfied; by his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many, and he will bear their iniquities. 12 Therefore I will give him a portion among the great, and he will divide the spoils with the strong, because he poured out his life unto death [This is clarified in details down in this article. It doesn't at all mean that he will die. The literal translation says: "Because that he exposed to death his soul"....This is verified again at this link: (Young's Literal Translation)], and was numbered with the transgressors. For he bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.

Here Abdallah begins his polemic.

Isaiah 53 perfectly agrees with Islam: Let us look at this Verse: "After the suffering of his soul, he will see the light and be satisfied; (From the NIV Bible, Isaiah 53:11)" The idea of this servant who will get pierced is NOT that he will DIE for people's sins. Notice that in Isaiah 53:9 it clearly says "He was assigned a grave with the wicked", which means that he will have a grave assigned to his name, but it doesn't necessarily mean that his dead body will be in it.

Osama's claim might have more merit if the chapter did not describe in other places the DEATH of this righteous, suffering servant. As a matter of fact, let's actually quote the whole verse which alone demonstrates this: "And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his DEATH; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth."(Isaiah 53:9, emphasis added)

The Bible's New Testament refutes the "piercing" story: If we were to take the Bible literally, then we will see clear contradictions in the crucifixion story. Let us look at what the Bible says about piercing Jesus: John 19:30-40: 30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit. 31 Now it was the day of Preparation, and the next day was to be a special Sabbath. Because the Jews did not want the bodies left on the crosses during the Sabbath, they asked Pilate to have the legs broken and the bodies taken down. 32 The soldiers therefore came and broke the legs of the first man who had been crucified with Jesus, and then those of the other. 33 But when they came to Jesus and found that he was already dead, they did not break his legs. 34 Instead, one of the soldiers pierced Jesus' side with a spear, bringing a sudden flow of blood and water. 35 The man who saw it has given testimony, and his testimony is true. He knows that he tells the truth, and he testifies so that you also may believe. 36 These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: "Not one of his bones will be broken," 37 and, as another scripture says, "They will look on the one they have pierced." 38 Later, Joseph of Arimathea asked Pilate for the body of Jesus. Now Joseph was a disciple of Jesus, but secretly because he feared the Jews. With Pilate's permission, he came and took the body away. 39 He was accompanied by Nicodemus, the man who earlier had visited Jesus at night. Nicodemus brought a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about seventy-five pounds. 40 Taking Jesus' body, the two of them wrapped it, with the spices, in strips of linen. This was in accordance with Jewish burial customs. First of all, notice the man-made third party narration in the book of John. The NIV Bible's Historians and Theologians are not even sure who wrote the books of John, 1 John, 2 John and 3 John. The original author(s) is mysterious.

For defenses of the traditional authorship of the Gospel of John, please see here

In the above verses, the mysterious author suggests that Jesus' bones were reserved because the soldiers did not break his knees, hence this fulfills the Scriptures' prophecy that GOD will protect his body that not even a single bone would break.

Also see detailed refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20 that supposedly suggest that GOD Almighty was going to get pierced on the cross.

Refutations to Abdallah's treatment of these verses will come in a later update of this article.

Let us look at the obvious contradiction in the above verses: Taken from the above verses: "These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: 'Not one of his bones will be broken,' and, as another scripture says, 'They will look on the one they have pierced.' (From the NIV Bible, John 19:36-37)" "he protects all his bones, not one of them will be broken. (From the NIV Bible, Psalm 34:20)" Notice in Psalm 34:20, it says that GOD Almighty will protect "all his bones". So, not even an inch from his bones will be damaged according to the Scriptures. As you might know, the crucifixion back then was done by nailing to the cross the hands and the ankles or the feet. If GOD Almighty was going to protect Jesus' body that not even a single bone will be broken, then how would the crucifixion and the death of Jesus be possible then?! My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?!

Abdallah begs the question here in what exactly it means for one's bones to be broken. The prophecies foretelling the Messiah's suffering make it clear that He would be pierced(Psalm 22:16, Zechariah 12:10). Plus, piercing bones is not the same as actually breaking them. Abdallah assumes that "not even an inch from his bones will be damaged according to the Scriptures," but he has yet to justify this assumption. None of the Lord's bones were fractured although the soldiers would have broken his legs had He not been dead in order to speed up the effects of the execution. Apparently John had no problem differentiating pierced bones and broken bones or else he would not have applied the Psalmist's passage to Jesus Christ. Interestingly, the results of the crucifixion did cause Christ's bones to be disjointed, which fulfilled the prophecy of Psalm 22:14, but in the very same chapter(verse 17), it is said "I can count all my bones." Apparently the Psalmist had no problem writing that his hands and feet would be pierced, but also that all of his bones would remain intact. JPH has also informed me that while it is possible for fractures to occur during a crucifixion, the nails were actually placed through gaps in between the bones. Thus it appears that Abdallah has missed the mark in 2 places with this objection.

And for the parts of the Bible that suggest that Jesus actually died (which clearly contradict the Verses that I presented above), please visit "What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth?"

Actually, Muslims should believe ALL of the Bible because Mohammad believed in all of it. The Bible was widely accepted as the UNCORRUPTED Word of God even by the first 3 centuries or so of Islamic scholars. Furthermore, we know that it has not been corrupted since Mohammad's time because the Bible we have today is based on manuscripts that predate Mohammad's ministry by centuries. Therefore, the assertion that the Bible has been corrupted is another example of Muslims making an assertion that goes against the authority of the Qur'an and Hadith, not to mention over a century of textual criticism.

Important Note: Both Muslims and Christians believe that the grave of Jesus today is empty. It doesn't have his body in it, because both believe that he was raised to Heaven. The difference between Muslims and Christians in this issue is that Muslims believe that Jesus never died on the cross but was raised to GOD Almighty. Christians believe that Jesus died on the cross and was RESURRECTED to GOD Almighty. This is, however, not supported at all and was never foretold in the Old Testament. I elaborated more and provided more evidence from both the Bible and the Noble Quran that support Islam's claim regarding this issue down in this article.

To the contrary, the Messiah's resurrection is foretold in Psalm 16:10 and is very strongly implied in Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53. We will elaborate on this if necessary as we continue to respond to Abdallah's challenge. Interestingly, as we noted in the above section, Muslims should accept the Biblical teaching on this topic simply because there is no merit to the claim that the Bible has been corrupted and Mohammad himself affirmed this.

Please visit the article Contradictions in the resurrection story in the Bible.

Please visit one of the following links for harmonizations of the resurrection narratives: here, here, here, and here Interestingly, the presence of apparent discrepancies in these accounts actually STRENGTHENS the historicity of Christ's resurrection rather than undermining it. Even if there are genuine contradictions in the accounts, historians would not dismiss the accounts' historicity as long as the general details are the same, which is what we clearly have in this case. The fact that there are apparent discrepancies adds much weight to the premise that the 4 Gospel authors were writing independently from one another. If all 4 accounts were exactly the same, the authors would likely be accused of collusion and their accounts would be taken as only 1 witness rather than 4 to the events. The Gospel authors were writing for different purposes and from different perspectives so complementary differences are what one would expect to find when examining their respective records.

In Isaiah 53, all it says is that he will get pierced which again it never mentioned the cross nor did it ever mention any sort of resurrection, not just in this chapter, but also throughout the Old Testament. If this servant is indeed Jesus peace be upon him, then him being pierced and never dying seems to perfectly support the Islamic teaching about Prophet Jesus peace be upon him NEVER died on the cross for anyone's sins.

We've already shown other places in the Old Testament where the Messiah's resurrection is explicitly or implicitly foretold. Let's examine more of Isaiah 53 and see whether or not Abdallah's conclusions on this matter are correct. We've already shown in verse 9 where His death is foretold. Plus, in verse 8, it says, "he was cut off out of the land of the living:...." However, in verse 10, we see this: "Yet it pleased the lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, HE SHALL SEE HIS SEED, HE SHALL PROLONG HIS DAYS, and the pleasure of the Lord hall prosper in his hand."(Isaiah 53:10, emphasis added) Thus it seems that not only is the servant's death in view in this chapter, but also his resurrection. Plus, the idea of Christ getting crucified at all appears contrary to the Qur'an: "That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:-(Ali, Surah 4:157)" Abdallah claims that the idea of Jesus being pierced and never dying supports the true Islamic viewpoint of Jesus. However, the Qur'an claims that He was not crucified, and thus not pierced, at all.

Also notice that Isaiah 53:11 clearly states that "he will see the light". What is that light? Could it be the light of Heaven? Probably be raised to Heaven? Christians do believe that Jesus peace be upon him was indeed raised to Heaven, and so do Muslims too. However, we see no mention throughout the ENTIRE Old Testament including obviously Isaiah 53 any mention of resurrection, nor any mention for resurrection on the 3rd day or any day. So does this mean that the servant will get pierced (by being put on the cross perhaps) and then get raised without dying?

Abdallah's assumptions here are erroneous in light of the above sections. Plus, Abdallah needs to explain to us how the swoon theory fits into Islam in light of Surah 4:157.

Let us look at the following Noble Verse from the Noble Quran (The Muslims Holy Scripture): "That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge; That they said (in boast): 'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.' But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjunction to follow, for of a surety they killed him not. Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise. And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them. (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"

Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted up....". Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and lifted up...." Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant (Jesus) to be raised to GOD Almighty after death. There absolutely no mention of any sort of resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.

Again, however, in light of verses 8-10 we see the resurrection seems to be well in view.

According to Islam, Jesus peace be upon him might have been put on the cross and might have got "pierced", but he never died. According to Islam, he was raised to Allah Almighty and saved from death. We Muslims believe that Prophet Jesus peace be upon him will come back again to earth and fight the army of Satan and defeat it, and then the Judgment Day will come. According to Islam, every person (including Jesus) must taste death (The Noble Quran, 44:56) Please visit the article Did Jesus get crucified according to Islam? The point is that Chapter Isaiah 53 agrees a lot more with Islam's claims than with the current Christianity's claims, and it is confirmed in Isaiah 52:13.

It actually clearly does not in light of the fact that Christ's death and resurrection are foretold in verses 8-10. Plus, this chapter clearly speaks of atonement for sins being achieved from the suffering servant's death on the cross(see verses 5,6, 8, and 10). Muslims tragically reject the gift of salvation that Jesus Christ has provided for us on the cross. With this being the case, this chapter of the suffering servant clearly does is not compatible with the Islamic ideas of atonement.

There are several other Noble Verses in the Noble Quran that talk about Jesus such as the following: "So peace is upon me [Jesus] the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life. (The Noble Quran, 19:33)" To see detailed explanation of this Noble Verse and about Jesus peace be upon him in Islam, please visit the following links: Does the Noble Quran in Verse 19:33 confirm Jesus' crucifixion? Ask me any question section. See responses to many questions about Jesus in Islam.

So what about Isaiah 53:12? Doesn't it suggest that Jesus will actually die? Let us look at Isaiah 5:12 "....because he poured out his life unto death, and was numbered with the transgressors....." This verse doesn't clearly state that the predicted servant will ACTUALLY DIE. When we study carefully the poetical literature of Isaiah 53, and study carefully the claims made above, we see that "him pouring his life unto death" means that the goodness that he will bring from GOD Almighty, will be the light that will bring his people from darkness (death) into light (goodness). He will defeat death (darkness). Isaiah 5:12 does not state that he will die. It clearly states that he will cover shadow or overwhelm death by his life. If I pour my cup of cranberry juice on the white carpet, then I would create a big red spot on the carpet. I wouldn't be changing the juice into carpet, or the carpet into juice. No, I would simply defeat the whiteness of the carpet by the color of the juice. That's what pouring the juice on the carpet means.

Same thing applies with the servant pouring his life unto death. GOD Almighty considers evil doing and not believing in Him as equal to death. Important Note: In many Verses in the Bible, we see that GOD Almighty used in Hebrew , Sheol, the word for "hell" as the same Hebrew word for "death". That is why the Christian Jehovah Witnesses don't believe in "Hell Fire" as punishment for the unbelievers. They believe that "Hell" is actual "Death". So to put it in other words, Isaiah 53:12 could also mean that the Servant (Jesus) will over shadow or cover "hell (death)" with "life (good)". So whoever believes in that Servant from the People of Israel will be saved from hell or death.

Have Isaiah 53:12 clearly said "and he will die for people's sins and resurrect after 3 days", then we would have nothing to argue about!

First of all, it is clear from even a cursory reading of this chapter in its whole context that the suffering servant will die for people's sins and be resurrected, and according to this same verse 12, serve as Intercessor(compare with Hebrews 7:25).

So Jesus pouring his life (good) unto death (bad), means that whomever believes in his message from the People of Israel will defeat bad (darkness) and will be saved, and will have Jesus' life (goodness). This perfectly matches what Islam claims about our beloved Prophet Jesus peace be upon him. Please visit The blessed Jesus in Islam.

Abdallah makes some interesting assertions, but he still has yet to show us that Jesus pouring out His life unto death can mean what he claims it to mean. Some parallel passages or an actual presentation based on Hebraic linguistics would help, but Abdallah instead seems to approach this passage with an unsubstantiated conflict approach. At any rate, we still see from verses 8-10 that the servant's death is clearly portrayed as is His resurrection.

Questions to Christians: If indeed Isaiah 53 is another proof that Jesus peace be upon him is the Creator of this Universe, then explain to me why Isaiah 53 and the entire Old Testament failed to prophesies about Jesus' 3rd day resurrection? If Islam is such a false religion, then why is Isaiah 53 so obviously agreeing with Islam? See Muhammad was prophesized in the Bible.

As for question # 2, we have demonstrated clearly that Isaiah 53 is contradictory in several ways to Islam. Secondly, Mohammad was not prophesied in the Bible(please see the links at the very top of this article). As for the first question, we have shown that Christ's resurrection is also foretold in the Old Testament in several places. However, it is true that there is not an explicit reference to Christ's "3rd day resurrection" to be found. Michael Brown notes in response to this objection: "Paul's exact words are: "For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Messiah died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures..."(I Corinthians 15:3-4). As a Jew schooled in the Scriptures from his childhood, Paul was not thinking of just one passage but of several passages that pointed to the Messiah's resurrection on the third day. And remember: Paul was not trying to "pull a fast one" on anybody! And no one had pulled a fast one on him either. This is the tradition he received, and if someone taught him something that was not in the Bible, he would have known it immediately. In fact, when we study the Tanakh[Old Testament], we see that the third day is often the day of completion and climax-and so it was with the Messiah's death and resurrection!"[17](words in [] are mine)

In other words, while there is no explicit reference to the Messiah being resurrected on the 3rd day in the Hebrew Scriptures, this does not warrant a conclusion that this event was not prophesied. We have the suspicion that our opponent may not be aware of the ancient Jewish exegetical method of typology, which was employed also by the New Testament writers, so we will include a couple of notes about it. Often, past events recorded in the Scriptures are interpreted to be typical(foreshadowing) a later and greater, more meaningful antitypical fulfillment. For instance, Matthew, in chapter 2:15, applies Hosea 11:1, where the prophet records where God had called His son from Egypt(which in context is clearly speaking of the nation of Israel), to Jesus being brought back from Egypt when He was a very young child. As long as this method was performed properly and, of course, with the necessary restraints, it was a perfectly acceptable method of exegesis(See here).

With this in mind, I will cite a few examples given by Brown which could be indicative of the coming Messiah's resurrection on the 3rd day.

"Hosea 6:1-2 states, "Come, let us return to the Lord. He has torn us to pieces but he will heal us; he has injured us but he will bind up our wounds. AFTER TWO DAYS HE WILL REVIVE US; ON THE THIRD DAY HE WILL RESTORE US, THAT WE MAY LIVE IN HIS PRESENCE." This is a word given to Israel as a whole, but the sequence is there: full restoration on the third day!"(emphasis added)[It is further worth noting that Matthew also, as shown above, used the whole nation of Israel as a type of Christ in Matthew 2:15.]

"According to Genesis 22:4, it was on the third day that Abraham arrived at Mount Moriah and prepared to sacrifice his son Isaac-that important event in later Rabbinic tradition as the Akedah, "the binding (of Isaac)"--an event seen as a Messianic foreshadowing by the rabbis(see above, 4:1). In similar fashion, the Letter to the Hebrews notes, "Abraham reasoned that God could raise the dead, and figuratively speaking, he did receive Isaac back from death"(Heb. 11:19)-and this took place on the third day."

"This was the time set for the miraculous healing of King Hezekiah, who as a son of David serves as somewhat of a Messianic prototype(cf. also b. Sanhedrin 94a, 98a): "Go back and tell Hezekiah, the leader of my people, "This is what the LORD, the God of your father David, says: I have heard your prayer and seen your tears; I will heal you. On the third day from now you will go up to the temple of the Lord'"(2 Kings 20:5; cf. also v. 8).

"Jonah was in the belly of the fish for three days(a deathlike experience, to be sure!-cf.Jonah 2:1-9) before being spit out on dry land, and hence saved from his watery tomb(Jonah 1:17; 2:10). Jesus himself makes reference to this event in the context of his death and resurrection(see, e.g., Matt. 12:40).[18]

Glenn Miller also comments on this:

"If we assume that the 'according to the scripture' phrase in 1 Corinthians is applying to the 'third day' aspect of the passage (i.e., it could very easily be applying to the overall content, to the substitutionary death component, the resurrection in general, or any combination of those--without it applying to the 'third day' phrase at all), then the short answer is given in Acts 2.31...in Peter's sermon he refers to Psalm 16.8, in which the messiah was to be raised 'before corruption'. In Jewish belief of the day, that meant on or before the 3rd day...

From BBC, at Acts: "Peter quotes Psalm 16 to establish his point (developed in Acts 2:29-32): God would raise the Messiah from the dead. Some anti-Semites have used texts like 2:23 to attack Jewish people in general, but Peter's critique of their corporate responsibility (cf. 2 Sam 12:9) is no harsher than that of Old Testament prophets (e.g., Amos, Isaiah, Jeremiah), and cannot rightly be used as if it were. (2:29-31). Peter argues that the psalm cannot refer to David, because David did see corruption (rot). (A tomb in David's honor had been dedicated outside Jerusalem, along with one of Huldah the prophetess.) Rather, the psalm refers to David's ultimate descendant, whom everyone agreed to be the Messiah (the anointed king), by definition (Acts 2:30; Ps 132:11; cf. Ps 89:3-4).

From the Bible Knowledge commentary: "2:25-35. These verses include four proofs of the Lord's resurrection and Ascension: (a) The prophecy of Psalm 16:8-11 and the presence of David's tomb (Acts 2:25-31), (b) the witnesses of the Resurrection (v. 32), (c) the supernatural events of Pentecost (v. 33), and (d) the Ascension of David's greater Son (Ps. 110:1; Acts 2:34-35)…The word translated grave in verses 27 and 31 is hadeµs, which means either the grave (as here) or the underworld of departed spirits…Peter's point is that since David, the patriarch and prophet was dead and buried, he could not have been referring to himself in Psalm 16:8-11; hence he was writing about the Christ ("Messiah") and His resurrection. The oath (Acts 2:30) looks back to Psalm 132:11 (cf. 2 Sam. 7:15-16). God . . . raised . . . Jesus to life, and exalted Him (cf. Acts 3:13; Phil. 2:9) to the Father's right hand (cf. Acts 5:30-31; Eph. 1:20; Col. 3:1; Heb. 1:3; 8:1; 10:12; 12:2; 1 Peter 3:22). Thus Jesus had the authority to send the promised Holy Spirit (Acts 1:5, 8; John 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7), whose presence was evidenced by what they saw ("tongues of fire," Acts 2:3) and heard ("a violent wind," v. 2), and the apostles speaking in other languages (vv. 4, 6, 8, 11)…Just as David was not speaking of himself in Psalm 16:8-11, so in Psalm 110:1 he was not speaking of himself. David was not resurrected (Acts 2:29, 31) nor did he ascend to heaven (v. 34). The Lord is Yahweh God who spoke to my (David's) Lord, who is Christ, God's Son…On five occasions in Acts some of the apostles said they were witnesses of the resurrected Christ (v. 32; 3:15; 5:32; 10:39-41; 13:30-31). They knew whereof they spoke!..2:36. Here is the conclusion of Peter's argument. The noun Lord, referring to Christ, probably is a reference to Yahweh. The same word kyrios is used of God in verses 21, 34, and 39 (cf. Phil. 2:9). This is a strong affirmation of Christ's deity.

From EBCNT: "25-35 H