Did Jesus say to preach to Gentiles, or not?

Matt. 10:5 "Go not into the way of the Gentiles"

Matt. 15:24 "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel"

John 4:22 "Salvation is of the Jews"


vs.


Acts 13:47 "The Lord has commanded us, saying, I have set you to be a light for the Gentiles, that you may bring salvation to the uttermost parts of the earth"

Acts 18:6 "Henceforth, I (Paul) will go unto the Gentiles"

Rom. 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

Rom. 15:16 "I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles"

Skeptics seem to think that there is some contradiction to the effect that it is unclear whether we are to evangelize Jews only, or both Jews and Gentiles.

Matt. 10:5 refers to a specific mission, the sending forth of the seventy, and says nothing that can be construed as a permanent, all-time, everybody directive against Gentile evangelization. The second verse is spoken by Jesus and refers to the mission Jesus had while on earth, which was primarily to the Jews. It says nothing about a permanent directive, and indeed is not said to disciples at all.

The John 4:22 verse isn't even relevant. It is talking about the origin of salvation through the Jews, not about evangelization.

The remaining verses talk about Paul's mission to the Gentiles. By this time the commission to evangelize Gentiles has been made (Matt. 28:19). Note as well that even Jesus anticipated a Gentile mission in several places (Matt. 24:14, John 10:16).

This objection is akin to claiming that our 1940s declaration of war against Germany and Japan means we could never go to war against any other countries, ever again. Is there something "erroneous" about changes or expansion in evangelistic focus? Isn't it possible that it makes sense to evangelize some persons before others -- indeed, given limited resources, isn't this necessary? Does it not make sense that the Jews would be evangelized before the Gentiles, since a) they had the closest knowledge to the truth, and b) because of the Diaspora, they were "ready made" and in place to become evangelists (as indeed many did become)?

-JPH